Chapter 10 Exam Question 30

Sally presented with a combination of symptoms of both psychosis and mood disorder. She most likely will be diagnosed with ___________ disorder.

a. Brief Psychotic
b. Schizophreniform
c. Schizoaffective
d. Delusional

Chapter 10 Exam Question 29

In Schizophreniform Disorder the symptoms are identical to those of schizophrenia, although the period of duration of symptoms is at least ____ month but less than ____ months.

a. one, six
b. one, five
c. one, three
d. one, two

Chapter 10 Exam Question 28

Harry suffers from this type Schizophrenia in which he has been in and out of a state facility for years. He presents with incoherent speech, fragments of delusional beliefs without organized theme, inappropriate emotional responses, and stereotyped mannerisms and grimaces.

a. Disorganized
b. Undifferentiated
c. Paranoid
d. Residual

Chapter 10 Exam Question 27

Tony suffers from this type of schizophrenia in which he believes the mafia and various other criminals are out to get him. He has prominent auditory hallucinations and refuses to walk alone in his neighborhood for fear he will be attacked.

a. Disorganized
b. Undifferentiated
c. Paranoid
d. Residual

Chapter 10 Exam Question 26

Risk of suicide is elevated in Schizophrenia; up to _____ percent make at least one suicide attempt, and ___ percent succeed.

a. 15, 10
b. 25, 10
c. 30, 10
d. 40, 10

Chapter 10 Exam Question 25

Many people with schizophrenia have difficulty showing an interest in work or in completing goal-directed activities. This is known as ______________.

a. Alogia
b. Avolition
c. Atonia
d. Affective flattening

Chapter 10 Exam Question 24

Per the DSM-IV-TR, continuous signs of the disturbance must persist for at least ____ months duration with at least ___ month of symptoms that meet the characteristic symptoms of Criteria A for a diagnosis of Schizophrenia.

a. two, one
b. three, one
c. five, one
d. six, one

Chapter 10 Exam Question 23

He used the term dementia praecox to refer to a symptom syndrome that involved an early, usually gradual, onset and progressive deterioration of mental functioning.

a. Bleuler
b. Kraepelin
c. Kaplan
d. Freud

Chapter 10 Exam Question 22

He introduced the term schizophrenia in 1911 to refer to a split between thought processes and emotions or to a general disorganization in thought and behavior.

a. Bleuler
b. Kraepelin
c. Blauler
d. Butler

Chapter 10 Exam Question 21

In Delusional and Shared Psychotic Disorder, the psychotic symptoms are largely limited to ___________.

a. delusions
b. hallucinations
c. alogia
d. thought content

Chapter 10 Exam Question 20

The distinction between Schizophrenia, Schizophreniform Disorder, and Brief Psychotic Disorder is one of ___________.

a. delusional quality
b. differentiation
c. determination
d. duration

Chapter 10 Exam Question 19

The distinction between Schizophrenia, Schizophreniform Disorder, and Brief Psychotic Disorder is one of ___________.

a. delusional quality
b. differentiation
c. determination
d. duration

Chapter 10 Exam Question 18

During his psychiatric examination, Tim repetitively imitated the movements of his doctor, a condition which is referred to as _______.

a. anhedonia
b. neologism
c. catatonia
d. echopraxia

Chapter 10 Exam Question 17

Dr. Lieberman moved the patient's arms into a folded position which the patient held for quite some time. This was possible as the patient was ___________, and had __________.

a. apraxic, waxy flexibility
b. catatonic, waxy flexibility
c. melantonic, waxy flexibility
d. anhedonic, waxy flexibility

Chapter 10 Exam Question 16

Earle complains of a strange metallic flavor in his food despite the fact that no one else can taste it in their food. Earle is experiencing _______ hallucinations.

a. visual
b. gustatory
c. tactile
d. somatic

Chapter 10 Exam Question 15

Hank sees things that are not there, including his deceased brother. Hank is experiencing _______ hallucinations.

a. visual
b. gustatory
c. auditory
d. somatic

Chapter 10 Exam Question 14

Kevin is experiencing _______ hallucinations, as he hears voices that tell him he is a bad person.

a. tactile
b. gustatory
c. auditory
d. somatic

Chapter 10 Exam Question 13

Jerry believes that the CIA and FBI are after him for his collection of glass ornaments. He believes that his ornaments have special powers, and that these federal agencies want to silence him and steal the ornaments power for themselves. Jerry's delusions are best described as _____________.

a. Persecutory
b. Bizarre
c. Erotomanic
d. Thought broadcasting

Chapter 10 Exam Question 12

Joe believed that the newscaster was speaking directly to him every night. Joe has delusions of _______.

a. thought insertion
b. jealousy
c. mood-congruence
d. reference

Chapter 10 Exam Question 11

Susan believed that the electric company was manipulating her movements, thoughts, speech, and emotions through the electrical wires across the city. She preferred to wear an aluminum foil hat to stop giving away "signals" of her location. Susan was suffering from delusions of ____________.

a. thought broadcasting
b. reference
c. being controlled
d. grandeur

Chapter 10 Exam Question 10

Robert believed that Britney Spears was in love with him, even though she has never met him. Robert's delusions are best described as _____________.

a. Bizzare
b. Somatic
c. Erotomanic
d. Grandiose

Chapter 10 Exam Question 9

Even after hiring a private investigator who found no wrongdoing, John continued to believe that his wife was being unfaithful. John is presenting with this form of delusion

a. persecutory delusions
b. erotomania
c. delusional control
d. delusional jealousy

Chapter 10 Exam Question 8

Despite having had a tubal ligation four years ago, the patient was convinced that she was 6 months pregnant. Even after showing her the lab results, the patient believed the lab results were wrong. The patient's delusion is best described as ___________.

a. Grandiose
b. Bizarre
c. Somatic
d. Persecutory

Chapter 10 Exam Question 7

Dr. Napen had a difficult time interviewing the patient who kept repeating everything that Dr. Napen asked. The patient was presenting with ______________.

a. neologism
b. echolalia
c. word salad
d. alogia

Chapter 10 Exam Question 6

If a patient began saying "I am the anointed Hess from the Land of the Easternbelenhaus", this would be an example of _______________.

a. alogias
b. echopraxias
c. neologisms
d. echolalias

Chapter 10 Exam Question 5

If a patient began saying "Well, bell, tell, smell, yell, dell", this would be an example of _______________.

a. derailment
b. alogia
c. clanging
d. word salad

Chapter 10 Exam Question 4

_____, involves shifts between clauses of topics or referential frames, and ______, concerns shifts within clauses.

a. Derailment; incoherence
b. Alogia; clanging
c. Clanging; derailment
d. Word salad; alogia

Chapter 10 Exam Question 3

When a person becomes distracted by irrelevant associations, cannot suppress them, and wanders farther and farther off the subject, that individual may be presenting with ____________.

a. Loosening of associations
b. Delusions
c. Hallucinations
d. Echopraxias

Chapter 10 Exam Question 2

Individuals who present with impairment in self care, restricted range of emotion, and poverty of speech content are considered to have evidence of this type of psychosis.

a. indirect or negative
b. direct or positive
c. inadequate
d. latent

Chapter 10 Exam Question 1

Individuals who present with delusions, hallucinations, and grossly impaired speech or movements are considered to have evidence of this type of psychosis.

a. inadequate
b. latent
c. indirect or negative
d. direct or positive

Chapter 09 - TERMS

What is Vasocongention?
Increased blood flow to, and swelling of, localized tissues or organs.


What is Refractory Period?
Period following orgasm in males during which further sexual arousal and orgasm are not possible.


What is Performance Anxiety?
Fear of not being able to perform sexually, which in turn hinders sexual performance; may be central to the development of sexual dysfunctions.


What is Sexual Dysfunction?
Disturbance in the sexual response cycle, or pain during intercourse, that causes distress for the individual.


What is Paraphilias?
Disorders in which the disturbance concerns the focus or target of sexual desire.

What is Masochism?
Preferences for obtaining sexual gratification by experiencing pain inflicted on oneself.


What is Sadism?
Preference for obtaining sexual gratification by inflicting pain on one's partner.

What is Plethysmographic Assessment?
Assessment of sexual arousal to stimuli by measurement of genital blood flow.

What is Transsexualism?
Condition in which sexual identity is contrary to biological gender.

What is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?
Condition in which fetal exposure to androgens results in masculinization of the genitals of a genetic female.

What is Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome?
Condition in which a genetic male fetus is insensitive to the effects of androgen and develops genitalia resembling a female.

Chapter 09 Exam Question 49

It is recommended that the person preparing for sex reassignment first complete ____ months of life experience as the other sex, and ___ months on continuous hormone treatments in order to be a candidate for surgery.

a. 3, 6
b. 6, 6
c. 12, 6
d. 12, 9

Chapter 09 Exam Question 48

As indicated by data from field trials, the _______ diagnostic criteria for Gender Identity Disorder showed quite low reliability.

a. DSM-II
b. DSM-III
c. DSM-III-R
d. DSM-IV

Chapter 09 Exam Question 47

The most boys (perhaps ____ percent) with gender identity disorder develop either homosexual or bisexual orientations by adulthood.

a. 25
b. 35
c. 55
d. 75

Chapter 09 Exam Question 46

When a genetic male fetus is insensitive to the effects of androgen and develops genitalia resembling a female, this is known as ________________.

a. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
b. Adrenogenital Syndrome
c. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
d. Klinefelter's Syndrome

Chapter 09 Exam Question 45

When a genetic female is exposed to high levels of androgens during fetal development, this results in masculinization of the genitals of the genetic female. This is known as ______________.

a. Klinefelter's Syndrome
b. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
c. Male Hypertrophic Syndrome
d. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

Chapter 09 Exam Question 44

Cody has both a strong and persistent cross-gender identification and a persistent discomfort with his assigned sex. This is known as _____________

a. Gender Identity Disorder.
b. Homosexualism.
c. Transvestic Fetishism.
d. Sexual Masochism.

Chapter 09 Exam Question 43

A pharmaceutical treatment for males with paraphilias is to give hormones in an attempt to reduce sexual arousal. These drugs reduce the production and action of ____________.

a. andragens
b. progestins
c. estrogens
d. androgens

Chapter 09 Exam Question 42

While many movies depict college males watching co-eds undress or take showers, this activity is illegal. Harry found this out the hard way when he was arrested in his neighbor's backyard for watching his neighbor undress and shower. Harry would be diagnosed with ______________.

a. Exhibitionism
b. Frotteurism
c. Voyeurism
d. Fetishism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 41

Gordon is a heterosexual male who loves cross-dressing. He typically wears a bras and panties under his business suit everyday to work. After work, he goes home, puts on make-up, a wig, and a dress. Gordon's most likely diagnosis is _______________.

a. Transvestic Fetishism
b. Sexual masochism
c. Pedophilia
d. Frotteurism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 40

Jane gets sexual gratification by inflicting pain on her partner through whippings, beatings with various hard leather objects, and by inserting blunt objects into various orifices. She would be diagnosed with _________.

a. Transvestic Fetishism
b. Sexual Masochism
c. Frotteurism
d. Sexual Sadism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 39

John has recently incorporated this masochistic act into his sexual life which involves oxygen depriving activities such as choking, hanging or suffocating.

a. areophila
b. coprophilia
c. hypoxyphilia
d. klismaphilia

Chapter 09 Exam Question 38

Jack is able to get sexual gratification by experiencing pain. He enjoys being whipped, tortured, and verbally abused by women. Jack would be diagnosed with ______________.

a. Transvestic Fetishism
b. Sexual Masochism
c. Frotteurism
d. Sexual Sadism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 37

When Ralph was arrested for attempting to have sex with a minor, the police searched his home and found hundreds of child porn movies and magazines. Ralph's diagnosis is _________.

a. Frotteurism
b. Exhibitionism
c. Pedophilia
d. Sexual Sadism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 36

Dino enjoys touching and rubbing up against women on the subway and the bus. He has recently begun doing this in the elevator and on escalators by coming too close or pretending to "bump" into a woman. Dino would be diagnosed with _______________.

a. Frotteurism
b. Exhibitionism
c. Pedophilia
d. Sexual Sadism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 35

Seth is fascinated by women's shoes and stockings. He has recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, urges, or behaviors which revolve around high heels, panty hose, and patent leather. He has twenty pairs of shoes and has stolen shoes from women's dressing rooms and from female coworkers. He often masturbates from merely smelling them or when a partner wears them. He would be diagnosed with ______________.

a. Fetishism
b. Pedophilia
c. Sexual Masochism
d. Frotteurism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 34

The fantasies, urges, or actions that are experienced as sexually arousing in exhibitionism persist over a period of ____ months

a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9

Chapter 09 Exam Question 33

Peter enjoys exposing his genitals to unsuspecting women on the street. His most likely diagnosis is ____________.

a. Fetishism
b. Exhibitionism
c. Frotteurism
d. Voyeurism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 32

Therese suffers from pain as the result of involuntary contraction of the perineal muscles anytime there are attempts to penetrate the vagina by a penis, finger, or tampon. Therese is suffering from ____________.

a. Anorgasmia
b. Vaginismus
c. Sexual Aversion Disorder
d. Female Sexual Arousal Disorder

Chapter 09 Exam Question 31

Every time Deb tries to have sexual intercourse, she suffers from genital pain. This pain is not due to the lack of stimulation or lubrication. Deb would be diagnosed with ____________.

a. Sexual Aversion Disorder
b. Dyspareunia
c. Female Sexual Arousal Disorder
d. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder

Chapter 09 Exam Question 30

Sally can reach an orgasm through solitary masturbation. She has a normal sexual desire, but she has a recurrent inability to reach orgasm with her partner. Sally's diagnosis is most likely _________________.

a. Female Orgasmic Disorder
b. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
c. Dyspareunia
d. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

Chapter 09 Exam Question 29

Clinical trials of other erectile dysfunction medications have shown response rates of nearly ____ percent.

a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80

Chapter 09 Exam Question 28

This medication, unlike papaverine, produces an erection only if sexual excitement is present.

a. Boniva
b. sertraline
c. Viagra
d. Allegra

Chapter 09 Exam Question 27

Masters and Johnson sought to reduce anxiety that interferes with arousal through sensate focus which progresses through three phases:

a. response retraining, genital stimulation, and nondemand intercourse
b. pleasuring, genital stimulation, and nondemand intercourse.
c. pleasuring, genital stimulation, and ondemand intercourse.
d. acceptance, genital stimulation, and nondemand intercourse

Chapter 09 Exam Question 26

Among males, erectile disorder has been linked to nicotine; smokers have _______ the rate of erection problems as nonsmokers.

a. twice
b. three times
c. four times
d. five times

Chapter 09 Exam Question 25

According to psychoanalytic theory, men and women with sexual arousal disorder show inhibited sexual excitement because unconsciously they perceive sexual activity as _____________.

a. dangerous
b. odd
c. confusing
d. dirty

Chapter 09 Exam Question 24

Bob suffers from a recurrent inability to attain an adequate erection for sexual activity. When he does achieve an erection, he is unable to maintain the erection. His most likely diagnosis is ______________________.

a. Male Sexual Arousal Disorder
b. Male Erectile Disorder
c. Dyspareunia
d. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

Chapter 09 Exam Question 23

Ginger is consistently unable to maintain an adequate lubrication-swelling response during sexual excitement nor is she able to maintain her arousal long enough to complete sexual activity. Ginger's most likely diagnosis is _______________________.

a. Vaginismus
b. Female Orgasm Disorder
c. Dyspareunia
d. Female Sexual Arousal Disorder

Chapter 09 Exam Question 22

The percentage of patients showing improvement with psychotherapy for treatment of sexual desire disorders ranges from ______________ percent.

a. 10 - 25
b. 30 - 45
c. 30 - 45
d. 50-70

Chapter 09 Exam Question 21

This hormone may increase sexual desire in men and women who experience sexual desire disorders.

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. adrenaline
d. testosterone

Chapter 09 Exam Question 20

Ironically, the most common pharmacological treatments for depression ___________ may themselves result in decreased desire and other sexual dysfunction.

a. the mood stabilizers
b. the SSRIs
c. the MAOIs
d. the anxiolytics

Chapter 09 Exam Question 19

Portia avoids having sexual contact with her partner to the point that she makes excuses or comes home late from work to avoid confrontation. She clearly presents with disgust and has suffered two to three panic attacks when the opportunity to have sex with her partner occurs. Portia would be diagnosed with ______________________.

a. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
b. Gender Identity Disorder
c. Sexual Aversion Disorder
d. Frotteurism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 18

Jane does not initiate sexual relations with her husband, but she reluctantly participates after he initiates. She has a very low desire for sexual activity and this is causing significant interpersonal difficulties. Jane's diagnosis is:

a. Sexual Conversion Disorder
b. Paraphilia
c. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
d. Dsypareunia

Chapter 09 Exam Question 17

To meet criteria for a sexual dysfunction disorder, the minimum duration of dysfunction must be ___________________.

a. There is no minimum duration of dysfunction required.
b. 1 month
c. 2 months
d. 3 months

Chapter 09 Exam Question 16

David has been concerned about his sexual performance since his heart surgery. In fact, he worries about it so much that his performance with his wife has been quite affected. The DSM-IV-TR classifier for David's is ________________________.

a. Lifelong Type vs. Acquired Type
b. Early Remission vs. Full Remission
c. Generalized Type vs. Situational Type
d. Due to Psychological or to Combined Factors

Chapter 09 Exam Question 15

John's sexual dysfunction has occurred in most circumstances, regardless of sexual stimulation, situations, or partners. The DSM-IV-TR classifier for John's situation is ___________________.

a. Lifelong Type vs. Acquired Type
b. Early Remission vs. Full Remission
c. Generalized Type vs. Situational Type
d. Due to Psychological or to Combined Factors

Chapter 09 Exam Question 14

Sally has experienced sexual dysfunctions since she was thirteen years old. The DSM-IV-TR classifier for Sally's situation is _________________________.

a. Early Remission vs. Full Remission
b. Lifelong Type vs. Acquired Type
c. Generalized Type vs. Situational Type
d. Due to Psychological or to Combined Factors

Chapter 09 Exam Question 13

Any physical disorder that involves the ____________ system can affect sexual performance.

a. central nervous
b. circulatory
c. respiratory
d. cardiovascular

Chapter 09 Exam Question 12

Recent research continues to implicate _________________ as central to the development and maintenance of all sexual dysfunctions in both men and women.

a. performance anxiety
b. sexual concerns
c. performance depression
d. sexual anxiety

Chapter 09 Exam Question 11

Charles has a fear of not being able to perform sexually, which has become problematic in his relationship with his wife. Masters and Johnson would probably call this ________________.

a. performance anxiety
b. sexual dysfunction
c. paraphilia
d. frotteurism

Chapter 09 Exam Question 10

Sexual tensions decrease during this phase.

a. plateau phase
b. orgasmic phase
c. resolution phase
d. refractory phase

Chapter 09 Exam Question 9

Unlike men, women do not experience a point of ____________ before their orgasms.

a. climax
b. resolution
c. inevitability
d. variability

Chapter 09 Exam Question 8

This is the shortest period of the sexual response cycle

a. release phase
b. excitement phase
c. orgasmic phase
d. resolution phase

Chapter 09 Exam Question 6

When blood rushes in to the genitals, causing penile erection in males and vaginal lubrication and clitoral swelling in females, this is referred to as the:

a. plateau phase
b. excitement phase
c. orgasmic phase
d. arousal phase

Chapter 09 Exam Question 4

In their pioneering study of human sexuality, they greatly increased our knowledge about physiological aspects of sexual functioning.

a. Masters and Johnson
b. Masters and Jackson
c. Musters and Johnson
d. Ministers and Jackson

Chapter 09 Exam Question 3

________ are associated with intense urges, fantasies, or behaviors involving unusual targets of sexual arousal, while ________are associated with disturbances of the sexual response cycle or with painful intercourse.

a. Gender identity disorders, Paraphilias
b. Sexual dysfunctions, Paraphilias
c. Paraphilias, Sexual dysfunctions
d. Paraphilias, Gender identity disorders

Chapter 09 Exam Question 2

The DSM-IV-TR divides the psychosexual disorders into ________ general categories.

a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five

Chapter 09 Exam Question 1

_____________ et al. were among the first to collect data on the prevalence of different kinds of sexual behavior such as masturbation, marital and premarital heterosexual intercourse, and homosexuality.

a. Rush
b. Kinsey
c. Masters
d. Johnson

Chapter 08 - TERMS

What is Personality?
A stable and enduring pattern of relating to oneself and to the world.


What is Factor Analysis?
Mathematical technique to analyze a matrix of correlations to reduce dimensions and identify factors that may simplify and explain the relationships.


What is Big Five?
Dimensional model of personality that emphasizes the mixture of five main factors: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism.


What is Personality Disorders?
Enduring and inflexible patterns of thinking and behaving that cause distress either for the person or for other people.


What is Comorbidity?
Co-occurrence of two or more diagnoses.


What is Ideas of Reference?
False interpretation of events in terms of special meaning for the self.


What is Psychopath?
Antisocial personality, involving characteristics such as lack of empathy or concern for others, frequent rule violations, impulsivity, and superficial charm.

Chapter 08 Exam Question 50

This personality disorder addresses a long-standing pattern of depressive cognitions, gloominess, pessimism, and low self-esteem that causes distress or impairment in daily functioning.

a. Borderline Personality Disorder
b. Paranoid Personality Disorder
c. Depressive Personality Disorder
d. Passive-Aggressive Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 49

When symptoms of different personality disorders are mixed together, a diagnosis of ________________________ is given.

a. Undifferentiated Personality Disorder
b. Multi-phasic Personality Disorder
c. Personality Disorder To Be Further Reviewed
d. Personality Disorder Not Otherwise Specified

Chapter 08 Exam Question 48

All of the following personality disorders are more common in males than in females EXCEPT:

a. Antisocial Personality Disorder
b. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
c. Borderline Personality Disorder
d. Paranoid Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 47

The use of written materials that may have life significance is called ___________.

a. Bibliotherapy
b. Biotherapy
c. Autobibliotherapy
d. Biblictherapy

Chapter 08 Exam Question 46

Unlike Harry who has Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Jacob suffers from Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder and ________________.

a. actively seeks therapy to change his compulsive behavior
b. displays true obsessions and compulsions.
c. frequently experiences uncontrollable thoughts about contamination
d. is not particularly distressed by his condition

Chapter 08 Exam Question 45

Jacob is preoccupied with control, orderliness, and perfectionism in every aspect of his life. He cannot complete a project on time due to his overly strict standards. While he is excessively devoted to his work, he is less motivated in relationships. Jacob would best be described as suffering from ___________________.

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
b. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
c. Histrionic Personality Disorder
d. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 44

Sally has an excessive need to be taken care of by her husband. She will not make any everyday decisions for herself and will not initiate any tasks or projects on her own without approval from her husband. Over the years, her behavior has led to her husband abusing her physically, and he has had extramarital affairs right in their home with Sally present in the other room. Sally is best diagnosed with ___________________.

a. Dependent Personality Disorder
b. Paranoid Personality Disorder
c. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 43

The comorbidity of Avoidant Personality Disorder with other Axis II conditions is highest with _________________

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
b. Antisocial Personality Disorder
c. Avoidant Personality Disorder
d. Schizoid Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 42

People with ________________ see themselves as inadequate and inferior to others, and they are usually described as shy, lonely, and timid.

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
b. Antisocial Personality Disorder
c. Avoidant Personality Disorder
d. Schizoid Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 41

Julia is socially inhibited, is very sensitive to being evaluated negatively, and always feels inadequate around others. She does not open up to anyone and has turned down job opportunities as she fears she will fail. Julia is best described as having ______________.

a. Avoidant Personality Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
d. Antisocial Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 40

In the general population, ---___ display at least one of the Cluster C personality disorders.

a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 6%
d. 8%

Chapter 08 Exam Question 39

Frank believes he is more important than he really is. He has a grandiose sense of self-importance, is preoccupied with fantasies about his own success and brilliance. In fact, just the other day he was in a meeting where he sat at the head of the table only to have to be asked to move. He abruptly stood up and said, "this is no way to treat the future head of the company!" Frank would best be described as having _________________.

a. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Dependent Personality Disorder
d. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 38

The general incidence of Histrionic Personality Disorder appears to be _____ percent of the population and between 10-15 percent within the mental health populations.

a. 2 to 3
b. 3 to 4
c. 4 to 5
d. 6 to 7

Chapter 08 Exam Question 37

Jill, or Jillicious as she liked to be called, was always in the arms of other men, even when she was escorted by her latest boyfriend. Her behaviors were always exaggerated and over the top. She flirted with married and single men, and loved to play the role of a damsel in distress. Jill would best be diagnosed with ______________.

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
b. Histrionic Personality Disorder
c. Dependent Personality Disorder
d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 36

First line pharmacology for Borderline Disorder involves antidepressants such as ________, and antimanic drugs such as ___________.

a. MAOIs, lithium
b. MAOIs, SSRIs
c. SSRIs, MAOIs
d. SSRIs; lithium

Chapter 08 Exam Question 35

Of those diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder, ____ are female.

a. 75%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 5%

Chapter 08 Exam Question 34

Trina has been in numerous unstable relationships, experiences chronic feelings of emptiness, and frequently shifts her goals and career plans. She "falls" in love easily and threatens to hurt herself if her current boyfriend leaves her. She would best be described as having ______________________________.

a. Borderline Personality Disorder
b. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
d. Schizoid Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 33

He was convicted for the Tate-LaBianca murders.

a. Ted Bundy
b. Charles Manson
c. John Wayne Gacy
d. Trent Michael Darby

Chapter 08 Exam Question 32

He was executed in 1989 for the serial murders of at least 22 women and is a good example of Antisocial Personality Disorder.

a. Ted Bundy
b. Charles Manson
c. John Wayne Gacy
d. Trent Michael Darby

Chapter 08 Exam Question 31

One characteristic of Antisocial Personality is _________________________ as these individuals frequently talk their way out of difficult situations and may "con" others of their good intentions for the future.

a. the inability to profit from mistakes
b. the need for admiration
c. impulsivity
d. the ability to make a good impression on others

Chapter 08 Exam Question 30

One characteristic of Antisocial Personality is _________________ as these individuals may be caught in many crimes and receive varying kinds of punishment, they do not seem to learn from these individuals may be caught in many crimes and receive varying kinds of punishment, they do not seem to learn from these experiences.

a. the inability to profit from mistakes
b. the need for admiration
c. impulsivity
d. stimulus seeking

Chapter 08 Exam Question 29

Antisocial Personality Disorder is much more prevalent (over ___ percent) in certain settings such as substance abuse treatment groups among the legally incarcerated.

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

Chapter 08 Exam Question 28

The following V-code listed in the DSM-IV-TR, is applied to situations in which the antisocial behavior is not due to a mental disorder.

a. Subclinical antisocial activity
b. Adult antisocial behavior
c. On-going antisocial tendency
d. Antisocial behavior not otherwise specified

Chapter 08 Exam Question 27

According to DSM-IV criteria for the diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, the individual must be at least ____ years old and have evidence of a Conduct Disorder before age ____.

a. 10, 15
b. 12, 15
c. 18, 15
d. 21, 15

Chapter 08 Exam Question 26

Gary has been in trouble with the law since he was fifteen years old. He has scammed elderly persons out of money, broken numerous laws, is prone to aggressive and manipulative behaviors, and shows no remorse for his actions. He would best be described as having ______________.

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Dependant Personality Disorder
d. Antisocial Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 25

The Cluster B personality disorders, as a group, affect about ____ percent of the general population.

a. 1.5
b. 2
c. 2.5
d. 3

Chapter 08 Exam Question 24

The commonalities between Schizotypal Personality Disorder and Schizophrenia suggest that _______________________ could be useful in treatment.

a. psychodynamic therapies
b. antipsychotic medications
c. anti-depressant medications
d. anxiolytics

Chapter 08 Exam Question 23

Only a small percentage individuals initially diagnosed with Schizotypal Personality Disorder go on to develop _______________.

a. PTSD
b. Bipolar disorder
c. depression
d. schizophrenia

Chapter 08 Exam Question 22

Sally believes that the television documentary on the rain forest is actually a personal message for her to create an elaborate garden. This is an example of _________________.

a. flight of ideas
b. a hallucination
c. ideas of reference
d. directed hypnosis

Chapter 08 Exam Question 21

People with __________________________ find close relationships uncomfortable and usually do not have close friends.

a. Dependent Personality Disorder
b. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
c. Borderline Personality Disorder
d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 20

Larry presents with social deficits and discomfort, combined with distortions of perception and cognition and eccentric behavior. He would be diagnosed with____________.

a. Dependent Personality Disorder
b. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
c. Borderline Personality Disorder
d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 19

For those with Schizoid Personality Disorder, they ___________________________________.

a. use dramatic acts in manipulative ways
b. perceive attacks on their character which are not apparent to others
c. are largely indifferent to the praise or criticism of others
d. have a pattern of intense interpersonal relationships

Chapter 08 Exam Question 18

Jay has been diagnosed with ________ as he presents with a pervasive detachment from social relationships, has a restrictive range of emotional expression with others, and is not interested in sexual relationships or experiences.

a. Antisocial Personality Disorder
b. Borderline Personality Disorder
c. Schizoid Personality Disorder
d. Avoidant Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 17

Which of the following personality disordered individuals would have recurrent suspicions, without justification, regarding the fidelity of a spouse or sexual partner?

a. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
b. Histrionic Personality Disorder
c. Schizoid Personality Disorder
d. Paranoid Personality Disorder

Chapter 08 Exam Question 16

Paranoid Personality Disorder may have prevalence as high as ____ percent in the general population and ____ percent among outpatient clinics.

a. 2.5; 5
b. 2.5; 7.5
c. 2.5;10
d. 5.0; 15

Chapter 08 Exam Question 15

John is very distrustful and suspicious. He does not get along with friends at work and refuses to let his guard down. He holds grudges and believes he is being harassed. John would best be described as having ___________ Personality Disorder.

a. Obsessive-Compulsive
b. Dependent
c. Paranoid
d. Histrionic

Chapter 08 Exam Question 14

_______________ are most readily prescribed for personality disorders in Clusters B and C. while Cluster A symptoms appear to be treated best with ______________.

a. Atypical antipsychotic drugs, benzodiazepines
b. Benzodiazepines, SSRIs
c. SSRIs, atypical antipsychotic drugs
d. Mood stabilizers, atypical antipsychotic drugs

Chapter 08 Exam Question 13

Usually, the presence of a personality disorder is associated with poorer outcome of treatment in a _________ disorder.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 08 Exam Question 12

___________ Personality Disorders tend to present symptoms that generally appear avoidant or fearful.

a. Cluster D
b. Cluster C
c. Cluster B
d. Cluster A

Chapter 08 Exam Question 11

___________ Personality Disorders tend to present symptoms that are dramatic, emotional, and erratic.

a. Cluster D
b. Cluster C
c. Cluster B
d. Cluster A

Chapter 08 Exam Question 10

___________ Personality Disorders tend to present symptoms that observers consider odd, or eccentric

a. Cluster D
b. Cluster C
c. Cluster B
d. Cluster A

Chapter 08 Exam Question 9

The DSM-IV-TR organizes the personality disorders into the following clusters, referred to as ______________.

a. A, B, and C
b. A, B, C, and D
c. A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, and C3
d. Cluster 1, Cluster 2 Cluster 3

Chapter 08 Exam Question 8

One examination of the application of Axis II diagnoses in adolescents aged 14-18 found an over-diagnosis of _________________.

a. Borderline and Narcissistic Personality Disorders
b. Histrionic and Borderline Personality Disorders
c. Antisocial and Histrionic Personality Disorders
d. Antisocial and Avoidant Personality Disorders

Chapter 08 Exam Question 7

Another diagnostic consideration involves the increasing tendency to apply the Axis II diagnoses to ______________.

a. the elderly
b. middle-age adults
c. children
d. adolescents

Chapter 08 Exam Question 6

In some personality disorders, ___________________ is among the defining features, obviously contributing to the difficulty of accurate diagnosis

a. cooperation with treatment
b. lack of comorbidity
c. exaggeration of symptoms
d. difference of opinions

Chapter 08 Exam Question 5

The DSM-IV-TR lists _____ different personality disorders.

a. three
b. six
c. ten
d. twelve

Chapter 08 Exam Question 4

This is the present model of personality which is endorsed by most psychometricians.

a. Eysenck Personality Inventory
b. Big Five
c. Cattell & Stice Questionnaire
d. Multi-Factor

Chapter 08 Exam Question 3

_________________ developed from mathematical attempts to tease apart the responses given in intelligence testing.

a. ANOVA analysis
b. Exponential coefficiency
c. Regression to the mean
d. Factor analysis

Chapter 08 Exam Question 2

Dr. Brown believes that personality is a collection of psychological characteristics, such as kindness or dependability, which can be identified and measured. She would be best described as a _______________.

a. Trait theorist
b. Humanist
c. Behaviorist
d. Psychoanalyst

Chapter 08 Exam Question 1

The DSM-IV-TR lists ________ and _______ on Axis II, which are dysfunctions that have been consistently problematic for a person throughout their life.

a. Anxiety Disorders; Personality Disorders
b. Mental Retardation; Personality Disorders
c. Personality Disorders; Somatoform Disorders
d. Somatoform Disorders; Anxiety Disorders

Chapter 07 - TERMS

What is Malingering?
The intentional faking of an abnormal behavior symptom.

What is Psychogenic?
Originating from psychological factors.

What is Conversion?
The notion that psychic energy or stress may be converted into physical symptoms.

What is Aphonia?
Inability to make speech sounds, without apparent physical basis.

What is Selective Amnesia?
Loss of memory for some but not all events during a particular period of time.

What is Iatrogenic?
Induced inadvertently by a therapist or by a treatment.

Chapter 07 Exam Question 49

While Jack did not lose contact with reality, he did feel a recurrent feeling of detachment or separation from his body, sort of like watching himself in a movie. This is known as ___________________.

a. Depersonalization Disorder
b. Dissociative Amnesia
c. Factitious Disorder
d. Hypochondriasis

Chapter 07 Exam Question 48

There are similarities between Dissociative Identity Disorder and _____________.

a. Bipolar disorder
b. GAD
c. depression
d. PTSD

Chapter 07 Exam Question 47

There has been a sharp rise in incidence of Dissociative Identity Disorder over the past few decades, increasing from a few hundred cases worldwide to ___________ in North America alone.

a. over 20,000
b. over 30,000
c. well over 80,000
d. over 100,000

Chapter 07 Exam Question 46

Dissociative Identity Disorder is formerly known as ________________.

a. Bipolar Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Multiple Personality Disorder
d. Manic-Depressive Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 45

The prevalence for Dissociative Fugue is ________ percent of the population.

a. 0.2
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 1.4

Chapter 07 Exam Question 44

Brett came home from work early and caught his wife and best friend in bed together. He left the home without saying a word. He disappeared and was later found 2 states away working as a janitor with no memory of being Brett. Which DSM-IV-TR disorder best characterizes his behavior?

a. Multiple Personality
b. Antisocial Personality
c. Schizophrenia
d. Dissociative Fugue

Chapter 07 Exam Question 43

Walter suffered from both memory impairment and sudden travel away from his home or regular surroundings. This is known as ___________.

a. Dissociative Identity Disorder
b. Dissociative Fugue
c. Dissociative Amnesia
d. Dissociative Dementia

Chapter 07 Exam Question 42

Empirical evidence shows that trauma, in general, ___________, which is a major issue in regards to the validity of the concept of repressed memory.

a. has no effect on memory
b. contributes to memory loss
c. impairs memory
d. enhances memory

Chapter 07 Exam Question 41

As patients with dissociative disorders are quite suggestible, the memories "recovered" during therapy may be ______, or induced inadvertently by a therapist or by a treatment.

a. socioceptive
b. interoceptive
c. iatrogenic
d. psychogenic

Chapter 07 Exam Question 40

For years, the typical approaches to treating Dissociative Amnesia involved hypnosis or the drug ____________.

a. sodium pentothal
b. sodium amytal
c. sodium butyl
d. sodium hydrate

Chapter 07 Exam Question 39

After seeing his best friend shot and killed, Tom suffered a loss of memory for some but not all events during that particular period of time. This is known as _____________.

a. Dementia
b. Pseudocyesis
c. Selective amnesia
d. Cognitive restructuring

Chapter 07 Exam Question 38

It is not uncommon for mentally ill patients, especially those with psychotic presentations to claim false symptoms of pregnancy known as ____________.

a. abasia
b. paruresis
c. pseudocyesis
d. aphonia

Chapter 07 Exam Question 37

These medications work better than other pharmacological interventions for Body Dysmorphic Disorder, especially at higher doses and longer intervals of treatment.

a. Lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. SNRIs
d. Anti-anxiety medications

Chapter 07 Exam Question 36

Body Dysmorphic Disorder begins by ____________.

a. late childhood
b. adolescence
c. young adulthood
d. middle age

Chapter 07 Exam Question 35

The prevalence of Body Dysmorphic Disorder may be up to ___ percent of patients in dermatological settings.

a. 6
b. 10
c. 15
d. 17

Chapter 07 Exam Question 34

The point prevalence of Body Dysmorphic Disorder was estimated at ___ percent of the adult population.

a. 1.4
b. 2.4
c. 3.4
d. 4.4

Chapter 07 Exam Question 33

Ann is preoccupied with the small hairs above her lip as well as the size of her nose. Despite numerous electrolysis appointments and corrective surgeries for her nose, she still believes there are defects in her appearance. She continues to spend hours a day looking at her face. Ann would be diagnosed with ____________________.

a. Dissociative Fugue
b. Dissociative Identity Disorder
c. Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 32

Which pharmacological class has produced positive results in the treatment for Hypochondriasis?

a. Lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. SNRIs
d. Anti-anxiety medications

Chapter 07 Exam Question 31

Hypochondriasis can co-occur with several ______ conditions.

a. Axis V
b. Axis IV
c. Axis III
d. Axis I

Chapter 07 Exam Question 30

Hypochondriasis begins at ___________.

a. age 12
b. age 18
c. age 24
d. at any age

Chapter 07 Exam Question 29

Hypochondriasis appears to affect between ______________ of the population.

a. 1 and 5 percent
b. 2 and 5 percent
c. 3 and 5 percent
d. 4 and 5 percent

Chapter 07 Exam Question 28

The disease concerns associated with Hypochondriasis must have lasted ___ months.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

Chapter 07 Exam Question 27

Kevin is overly preoccupied with the fear that he has cancer, based on his recent weight loss of 2 pounds and muscle aches. Kevin may have ___________.

a. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
b. Conversion Disorder
c. Hypochondriasis
d. Somatization Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 26

_________ changes one's perspective on chronic pain by focusing not on pain control but on accepting its presence and valuing pain tolerance.

a. Acceptance and Commitment therapy
b. Aversive therapy
c. Pain-medication therapy
d. Cognitive-behavior therapy

Chapter 07 Exam Question 25

These antidepressant medications have produced pain relief in somatoform patients.

a. the MAO-inhibitors
b. the new-generation antidepressants the tricyclics
c. the SSRIs
d. the tricyclics

Chapter 07 Exam Question 24

Psychological factors associated with Pain disorder can include other

a. Axis I or II disorders.
b. Axis II or III disorders.
c. Axis II or IV disorders.
d. Axis III or IV disorders.

Chapter 07 Exam Question 23

Chronic pain is associated with ________________.

a. the refusal of sufferers to seek medical attention
b. depression and a risk of suicide
c. anxiety and a risk of suicide
d. schizophrenia and a risk of suicide

Chapter 07 Exam Question 22

Pain Disorder can be typed as __________ or ___________.

a. symptomatic, asymptomatic
b. chronic, exaggerated
c. mild, severe
d. acute, chronic

Chapter 07 Exam Question 21

Nathan has one or more pains severe enough to warrant clinical attention, which cause him distress, and interfere with his normal social, occupational, or daily functioning. He is suffering from _________________.

a. Hypochondriasis
b. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
c. Pain Disorder
d. Conversion

Chapter 07 Exam Question 20

In an investigation of the treatment of Conversion Disorder, a randomized clinical trial of hypnosis compared to waiting list controls indicated that patients in the hypnosis condition showed significant improvement in conversion symptoms that was maintained at a ___________-month follow-up.

a. three
b. four
c. six
d. eight

Chapter 07 Exam Question 19

David's conversion symptoms came about the time when he was supposed to redeploy to the front lines. His symptoms seem to produce a _______________.

a. medical illness
b. subsequent opiate dependence
c. secondary gain
d. state of la belle indifference

Chapter 07 Exam Question 18

John is experiencing a lack of feeling or numbness in an area of his hand and wrist. This is known as _____________.

a. Aphonia
b. Abasia
c. Paresthesia
d. Glove anesthesia

Chapter 07 Exam Question 17

Theresa presents with coughing spells, sneezing, tics around her mouth, and tingling on her skin. Her symptoms cannot be explained by a general medical condition, any substances, or any religious or cultural practices. She would be diagnosed with

a. Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder
b. Somatization Disorder
c. Pain Disorder
d. Conversion Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 16

Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder must be at least ____ months in duration.

a. two
b. four
c. six
d. nine

Chapter 07 Exam Question 15

The effectiveness of _____________________ Somatization Disorder is less well documented than for some of the other somatoform disorders.

a. SSRIs
b. Cognitive-Behavior Therapies
c. Psychodynamic Therapies
d. hypnosis

Chapter 07 Exam Question 14

In a recent group comparison, sexual abuse was _____ times more likely in the background of Somatization Disorder patients than in matched patients with Major Depressive Disorder.

a. six
b. nine
c. ten
d. twelve

Chapter 07 Exam Question 13

Familial evidence suggests that male relatives of those with Somatization Disorder are more likely to be diagnosed with

a. Histrionic Personality Disorder
b. Antisocial Personality Disorder
c. Borderline Personality Disorder
d. Dependent Personality Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 12

The DSM-IV-TR suggests the incidence of Somatization Disorder is up to _____ of females and about one-tenth of that for males.

a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 6%

Chapter 07 Exam Question 11

The chronic symptoms of Somatization Disorder must have begun by age ____ and have lasted several years.

a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

Chapter 07 Exam Question 10

Susan presents with multiple physical complaints across several different bodily symptoms, which have resulted in repeated medical treatments but for which no medical explanation is available. Susan would be diagnosed as having _____________.

a. Somatization Disorder
b. Depersonalization Disorder
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
d. Dissociative Identity Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 9

Nikki complains of physical problems, including nausea, headaches, and a tingling sensation in her fingertips. She has had bouts of extreme fatigue and tenderness in her legs. Although she has been to a number of physicians, no physical abnormality can be found. Nikki is most likely to be categorized as having a(n) ________ disorder.

a. somatoform
b. dissociative
c. affective
d. anxiety

Chapter 07 Exam Question 8

Most often, the victim of Factitious Disorder by Proxy is a preschool child and the perpetrator is _____.

a. the brother
b. the sister
c. the mother
d. the father

Chapter 07 Exam Question 7

____________________ involves false symptoms produced on behalf of someone else who is under the individual's care.

a. Dissociative Identity Disorder
b. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
c. Pain Disorder, Undifferentiated
d. Factitious Disorder by Proxy

Chapter 07 Exam Question 6

The prevalence estimate of ___ percent among hospitalized patients is not very useful because feigning is probably not detected with great accuracy.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Chapter 07 Exam Question 5

The symptoms of Factitious Disorder ___________ when an individual is aware of being observed.

a. lessen
b. are moderate
c. are mild
d. worsen

Chapter 07 Exam Question 4

Laura has a tendency to invent or exaggerate her symptoms for no obvious motive or reason, apart from playing sick. She would be diagnosed with _____________.

a. Conversion Disorder
b. Factitious Disorder
c. Dissociative Identity Disorder
d. Pain Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 3

Malingering may be over-represented among certain conditions such as _______.

a. GAD
b. Schizophrenia
c. Bipolar Disorder
d. PTSD

Chapter 07 Exam Question 2

Malingering not attributed to a mental disorder and is classified in the DSM-IV-TR as ______.

a. a Factitious Disorder
b. an Iatrogenic Disorder
c. a "V-code"
d. a "G-code"

Chapter 07 Exam Question 1

Luke was facing 20 years to life for his latest armed robbery. Although he never suffered from a psychiatric disorder in his life, he told the psychiatrist that he was hearing voices which told him to rob other people. This would best be described as ____________.

a. a conversion disorder
b. an affective disorder
c. malingering
d. iatrogenic disorder

Chapter 06 - TERMS

What is Panic Attack?
Rapidly developing sense of intense fear and anxiety.

What is Agoraphobia?
Anxiety about being in places from which escape would be difficult in the event of a panic attack.

What is Interoceptive?
Relating to internal, physiological stimuli.

What is Exteroceptive?
Relating to external, environmental stimuli.

What is Two-Factor Theory?
Theory that both Pavlovian and operant influences maintain phobic behavior.

What is Obsessions?
Intrusive thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

What is Compulsions?
Actions that one feels compelled to perform.

Chapter 06 Exam Question 50

In terms of the Anxiety Disorders, this may be a more effective treatment and carry a lower rate of relapse after the end of therapy.

a. medications
b. cognitive-behavioral interventions
c. psychodynamic therapies
d. humanistic treatments

Chapter 06 Exam Question 49

For Generalized Anxiety Disorder, medications such as _____ are effective for longer term treatment.

a. lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Phenothiazines

Chapter 06 Exam Question 48

For Generalized Anxiety Disorder, medications such as _____ are helpful for the short-term relief of symptoms.

a. lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. Benzodiazepines
d. SNRIs

Chapter 06 Exam Question 47

People with Generalized Anxiety Disorder do not experience ____________.

a. panic attacks
b. worries which are difficult to control
c. symptoms of autonomic arousal concentration
d. generally worry about minor events as often as major ones

Chapter 06 Exam Question 46

People with _______ find their worries difficult to control, distressing, and physically troublesome.

a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. phobias
d. panic attacks

Chapter 06 Exam Question 45

This is the most common medical treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

a. antidepressant medications
b. anti-anxiety medications
c. mood stabilizers
d. antipsychotic medications

Chapter 06 Exam Question 44

Some brain studies utilizing PET scans have reported higher levels of activity in the _______ of the left hemisphere for those with OCD as compared to those without OCD.

a. occipital cortex
b. orbital parietal
c. cortex temporal
d. orbital frontal cortex

Chapter 06 Exam Question 43

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder usually follows a(n) _____ course with symptoms _____ during periods of stress.

a. acute, worsening
b. acute, maintaining the same degree
c. chronic; worsening
d. chronic; maintaining the same degree

Chapter 06 - TERMS

What is Panic Attack?
Rapidly developing sense of intense fear and anxiety.

What is Agoraphobia?
Anxiety about being in places from which escape would be difficult in the event of a panic attack.

What is Interoceptive?
Relating to internal, physiological stimuli.

What is Exteroceptive?
Relating to external, environmental stimuli.

What is Two-Factor Theory?
Theory that both Pavlovian and operant influences maintain phobic behavior.

What is Obsessions?
Intrusive thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

What is Compulsions?
Actions that one feels compelled to perform.

Chapter 06 Exam Question 42

The lifetime prevalence of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is about _____ of the population.

a. 1%
b. 2.50%
c. 7%
d. 10.50%

Chapter 06 Exam Question 41

For a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, the obsessions and compulsions are time-consuming, occupying at least ___________.

a. ten minutes per day
b. one hour per day
c. two hours per day
d. four hours per day

Chapter 06 Exam Question 40

This is the least common type of obsessions seen in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

a. ritualized counting
b. contamination
c. forbidden urges
d. repeated doubts

Chapter 06 Exam Question 39

When driving, Yolanda often has the disturbing thought that she has run over something. When the thought occurs, she responds by driving up and down the same road 5-10 times to make sure she did not hit something. The repetitive thought is a(n) ______ and the corresponding action is a(n) ______.

a. phobia; compulsion
b. compulsion; obsession
c. panic attack; obsession
d. obsession; compulsion

Chapter 06 Exam Question 38

Grace checks her appearance in the mirror over 40 times a day to make sure no hairs are out of place, her make-up is flawless, and her earrings have not moved. She brushes her hair for exactly ten minutes on each side and has to count while brushing. If she loses count, she must start all over again. Grace probably suffers from a(n) _______ Disorder.

a. Social Phobia
b. Conversion
c. Obsessive-compulsive
d. Personality

Chapter 06 Exam Question 37

_________ are actions that one feels compelled to perform and are difficult to stop or control while ______ are intrusive unwanted thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

a. Delusions, obsessions
b. Compulsions, obsessions
c. Obsessions, compulsions
d. Panic attacks, compulsions

Chapter 06 Exam Question 36

_________ are actions that one feels compelled to perform and are difficult to stop or control while ______ are intrusive unwanted thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

a. Delusions, obsessions
b. Compulsions, obsessions
c. Obsessions, compulsions
d. Panic attacks, compulsions

Chapter 06 Exam Question 35

Pharmacologically, __________ appear to be effective in short-term relief for social anxiety.

a. Antidepressants
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazines
d. Beta blockers

Chapter 06 Exam Question 34

Mike has difficulty going to parties and thus meeting new people. He fears appearing stupid and incompetent, and that others will judge him as weak, timid, and not fun to be around. He often is overwhelmed with anxiety for days or week whenever he is invited to a party or social event, and he experienced a panic attack when he tried to leave for the last party he was invited to. Mike most likely meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for

a. Social Phobia
b. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia
c. Specific Phobia
d. Acute Stress Disorder

Chapter 06 Exam Question 33

Developed by Wolpe, this primary (and the most effective) therapy is used to treat Specific Phobias.

a. rational-emotive therapy
b. systematic desensitization
c. psychoanalysis
d. biomedical therapy

Chapter 06 Exam Question 32

This arguably remains the most validated and plausible account of the etiology of phobias at this time.

a. the cognitive-social model
b. the comprehensive contemporary learning model
c. the pharmacological model
d. the psychodynamic model

Chapter 06 Exam Question 31

In two-factor theory, the acquisition of specific phobias occurs through Pavlovian conditioning and the maintenance of the phobic behavior occurs through _______________.

a. cognitive factors
b. catastrophic misinterpretations
c. sympathetic nervous system activity
d. operant conditioning

Chapter 06 Exam Question 30

Fear of strangers is known as

a. monophobia
b. acrophobia
c. xenophobia
d. zoophobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 29

Fear of high places is known as

a. astraphobia
b. acrophobia
c. cynophobia
d. zoophobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 28

Women are diagnosed with phobias _________ men.

a. twice as often as
b. three times more often as
c. less than
d. as equally as

Chapter 06 Exam Question 27

This is the most reliable diagnosis in the anxiety disorder category.

a. Specific Phobia
b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
c. Panic Disorder
d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Chapter 06 Exam Question 26

Sharon's intense, irrational fear of ladders would most likely be an example of a(n):

a. obsession
b. phobia
c. fugue
d. compulsion

Chapter 06 Exam Question 25

______________ therapies for Panic Disorder appear to be more effective and less subject to relapse.

a. Pharmacological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Psychodynamic
d. Cognitive-behavioral

Chapter 06 Exam Question 24

These therapies for Panic Disorder typically involve exposure to feared interoceptive or exteroceptive stimuli with the goal of extinction of the anxiety response and the catastrophic expectations that accompany it.

a. Cognitive-behavioral and humanistic
b. Humanistic and psychodynamic
c. Behavioral and cognitive-behavioral
d. Psychodynamic and behavioral

Chapter 06 Exam Question 23

As treatment for Panic Disorder, ____________ may produce dependence and most patients experience a relapse when medications are discontinued.

a. Antidepressants
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazines
d. Beta blockers

Chapter 06 Exam Question 22

Benzodiazepines are ________ enhancers and reduce anxiety and panic symptoms.

a. GABA
b. serotonin
c. ACTH
d. dopamine

Chapter 06 Exam Question 21

From the biological perspective, treatments for panic disorder have included minor tranquilizers such as:

a. Barbiturates
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazines
d. Beta blockers

Chapter 06 Exam Question 20

The term _______ is defined as relating to internal, physiological stimuli, while the term ________ is defined as relating to external, environmental stimuli.

a. interoceptive, exteroceptive
b. interoceptive, exteraceptive
c. exteroceptive, interoceptive
d. exteroceptive, interaceptive

Chapter 06 Exam Question 19

Another possible factor for Panic Disorder involves the inhibitory neurotransmitter __________.

a. GABA
b. serotonin
c. ACTH
d. dopamine

Chapter 06 Exam Question 18

Panic attacks involve intense activity in parts of the brain involved in fear and emotional arousal such as the _______________.

a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus

Chapter 06 Exam Question 17

First degree relatives of Panic Disorder victims are up to ___ times more likely to also show the disorder.

a. 5
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14

Chapter 06 Exam Question 16

Panic disorder affects up to ___of the population at some point in life.

a. 35%
b. 20%
c. 15%
d. 5%

Chapter 06 Exam Question 15

The most common pattern of attacks appears to be a(n) _______ one of waxing and waning.

a. moderate
b. acute
c. chronic
d. severe

Chapter 06 Exam Question 14

Gina experienced a panic attack while shopping at a crowded mall. She could not return to the mall as she feared experiencing another panic attack. She then experienced great anxiety at the grocery store as well, so she stopped going to the store and began to buy her groceries online. Gina's fear has grown to encompass anything outside of the home such as getting into her car or going outside to get the newspaper. She spends more and more time in the safety of her own home and has recently accepted a work from home position. Gina most likely meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for

a. Specific Phobia
b. Acute Stress Disorder
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
d. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 13

As part of the criteria for panic disorder, at least one of the panic attacks has been followed by _________ or more of one or more of the following: persistent concern about having additional attacks, worry about the implications of the attack or its consequences, and a significant change in behavior related to the attacks.

a. one month
b. two months
c. three months
d. four months

Chapter 06 Exam Question 12

Kate has experienced recurrent, spontaneous and unexpected panic attacks. She has anxiety about future attacks and their consequences. Kate is suffering from ________________.

a. Specific phobia
b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. Generalized anxiety
d. Panic disorder

Chapter 06 Exam Question 11

In the case of some subtypes of anxiety, the female to male ratio is ____________.

a. 2 to 1
b. 3 to 1
c. 4 to 1
d. 5 to 1

Chapter 06 Exam Question 10

As in the case of all ________ conditions, the Anxiety Disorders cause interference with or impairment of normal functioning.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 06 Exam Question 9

This disorder may occur with or without agoraphobia.

a. Panic
b. Bipolar
c. Posttraumatic stress
d. OCD

Chapter 06 Exam Question 8

This disorder gets its name from the Greek for fear of the marketplace.

a. Social phobia
b. Agoraphobia
c. Posttraumatic stress
d. Specific phobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 7

This is anxiety about being in places from which escape would be difficult in the event of a panic attack.

a. Social phobia
b. Agoraphobia
c. Posttraumatic stress
d. Specific phobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 6

Diana suddenly and rapidly experiences a pounding heart, feelings of choking and suffocation, trembling, and a fear of losing control. She thinks that she is dying. These sensations peak in about ten minutes and leave Diana feeling as if she has had a nervous breakdown. Diana most likely has experienced __________________.

a. an obsessive-compulsive episode
b. a specific phobia
c. a generalized anxiety disorder
d. a panic attack

Chapter 06 Exam Question 5

A(n) panic attack is a rapidly developing sense of intense fear and anxiety which progresses to a peak within ____ minutes of its onset.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

Chapter 06 Exam Question 4

__________ is a chronic sensation without being clearly associated with any specific stimulus.

a. Fear
b. Anxiety
c. Specific phobia
d. Astonishment

Chapter 06 Exam Question 3

The activation of the _______ results in abrupt dilation of the blood vessels in the viscera, slowing of the heartbeat, a drop in blood pressure, and loss of muscle tone.

a. central nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. skeletal nervous system

Chapter 06 Exam Question 2

A variation that may occur in acute fear is ______________.

a. vomiting
b. fainting
c. choking
d. irritability

Chapter 06 Exam Question 1

The lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders affect over ______ of the population at some point in their lives.

a. 3%
b. 11%
c. 28%
d. 46%

Chapter 05 - TERMS

What is Autonomic Nervous System?
Portion of the nervous system that controls the functioning of many internal bodily processes such as heart rate, digestive processes, and so on.

What is Sympathetic Nervous System?
Division of the autonomic nervous system primarily involved in stress or emergency reactions. For example, produces an increase in heart rate and blood pressure.

What is Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Division of the autonomic nervous system primarily involved in conservation of energy, such as increasing digestive processes.

What is Homeostatic Mechanisms?
Processes whereby equilibrium or balance is maintained in a dynamic system.

What is Psychoneuroimmunology?
The study of the neural effects of psychological events on the immune system.

What is Diathesis-stress Model?
A model of mental disorders that proposes disorders develop when an individual with a diathesis (predisposition) experiences significant psycho logical stress.

What is Flooding?
Therapeutic technique in which the person is made to confront the stimuli that arouse anxiety until the anxiety extinguishes.

What is Habituation?
Lessening of a response as a function of repeated presentations of the eliciting stimulus.

Chapter 05 Exam Question 48

EMDR stands for:

a. eye movement desensitization and reprocessing
b. eye movement desensitization and processing
c. eye movement sensitization and processing
d. eye movement sensitization and reprocessing

Chapter 05 Exam Question 47

The most effective treatments for PTSD are:

a. psychoanalytical in nature
b. cognitive-behavioral therapies
c. humanistic therapies
d. social-debriefings

Chapter 05 Exam Question 46

The diagnosis of PTSD in women to men is _______.

a. 5 to 1
b. 4 to 1
c. 3 to 1
d. 2 to 1

Chapter 05 Exam Question 45

PTSD has perhaps ____ percent lifetime prevalence among adults in the United States.

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9

Chapter 05 Exam Question 44

PTSD was first listed as a mental disorder in the DSM-III in

a. 1980
b. 1987
c. 1994
d. 1996

Chapter 05 Exam Question 43

The diagnosis of _______ requires that symptoms begin within 4 weeks of the trauma.

a. PTSD
b. GAD
c. OCD
d. ASD

Chapter 05 Exam Question 42

Post-traumatic stress disorder is diagnosed after _______ in duration.

a. one month
b. two months
c. three months
d. four months

Chapter 05 Exam Question 41

The stressors that lead to _____ are so intense that they could presumably cause maladaptive reactions in anyone.

a. PTSD
b. GAD
c. OCD
d. SAD

Chapter 05 Exam Question 40

By definition, an Adjustment Disorder is time-limited, such that the impairment or maladaptive reaction to the stressor is expected to remit within _____ months if the stressor is removed.

a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six

Chapter 05 Exam Question 39

Unlike bereavement, Adjustment Disorder is a(n) _____ disorder according to the DSM-IV-TR.

a. Axis IV
b. Axis III
c. Axis II
d. Axis I

Chapter 05 Exam Question 38

For the DSM-IV-TR, bereavement is listed as ______________.

a. an Axis I disorder
b. an Axis III disorder
c. an Axis V disorder
d. a V code, not a disorder

Chapter 05 Exam Question 37

This code is used when condition for which one might seek treatment but is not attributable to mental disorder.

a. A-Code
b. C-Code
c. P-Code
d. V-Code

Chapter 05 Exam Question 36

In the ______________ of mental disorders, the predisposition for a particular disorder is considered to be biological, genetic, or psychological in origin.

a. Cognitive model
b. Diathesis-dynamic model
c. Diathesis-stress model
d. Diathesis-eustress model

Chapter 05 Exam Question 35

This is the model of mental disorders that proposes disorders develop when an individual with a predisposition for a disorder experiences significant psychological stress.

a. Diathesis-austress model
b. Diathesis-distress model
c. Diathesis-stress model
d. Diathesis-eustress model

Chapter 05 Exam Question 34

This is the study of neural effects of psychological events on the immune system.

a. Psychoimmunology
b. Psychoneuroimmunology
c. SocialPsychoimmunology
d. Neuroimmunology

Chapter 05 Exam Question 33

Martin went to his favorite restaurant and ordered a steak with bÈarnaise sauce. A few hours later, he became violently ill with food poisoning. To this day, he refuses to have bÈarnaise sauce on his steak. He apparently developed ___________________.

a. an immune system suppression
b. a conditioned taste aversion
c. ognitive restructuring
d. a food adjustment disorder

Chapter 05 Exam Question 32

One effect of the stress hormone _________ is to suppress immune response.

a. norepinephrine
b. cortisol
c. serotonin
d. insulin

Chapter 05 Exam Question 31

Individuals who are easy-going, laid-back, less hurried, and relaxed individuals are referred to as ____________ personalities.

a. Type A personality
b. Type B personality
c. Type C personality
d. Type D personality

Chapter 05 Exam Question 30

Research suggests that one's susceptibility to heart attacks may be most closely linked to ______________.

a. ambition
b. competitiveness
c. hostility
d. perfectionism

Chapter 05 Exam Question 29

______________ is a pattern of behaving that involves competitiveness, aggressiveness, hostility, and time urgency.

a. Type A personality
b. Type B personality
c. Type C personality
d. Type D personality

Chapter 05 Exam Question 28

Exposure to uncontrollable or inescapable stressors can impair future learning, an effect that led ___________ (1975) to propose that uncontrollable events are the basis for depressive disorders.

a. Beck
b. Freud
c. Seligman
d. Foa

Chapter 05 Exam Question 27

Uncontrollable shock produces larger effects on fear, _______________ levels, and ulceration than does shock of equal intensity and frequency.

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. testosterone
d. corticosterone

Chapter 05 Exam Question 26

In the triadic research design, the __________ subjects receive exactly the same intensity, frequency, and duration of the stressor as other subjects, but do not have any prior warning.

a. yoked
b. provoked
c. evoked
d. stoked

Chapter 05 Exam Question 25

In ____________, the experimental or master subjects receive some warning signal or information predicting the delivery of the stressor.

a. the diagnostic interview
b. the diathesis-stress model
c. the triadic design
d. classical conditioning

Chapter 05 Exam Question 24

This research method assesses the relative importance of the predictability of stressors.

a. the diagnostic interview
b. the diathesis-stress model
c. the triadic design
d. classical conditioning

Chapter 05 Exam Question 23

On Holmes and Rahe's scale, a total score of 300 predicted a greater than ___________ likelihood of major illness within the next two years.

a. three-fourths
b. two-thirds
c. one-half
d. one-third

Chapter 05 Exam Question 22

According to Holmes and Rahe, the death of a spouse was assigned a value of _____ units.

a. 100
b. 99
c. 95
d. 90

Chapter 05 Exam Question 21

Increased levels of cortisol made in response to chronic challenges, may damage cells in the ___________ and impair its ability to control the stress response.

a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus

Chapter 05 Exam Question 20

The initial amplifying effects of reciprocal inhibition are eventually reversed by _________________.

a. ACTH
b. the pituitary gland
c. homeostatic controls
d. the experience of a stressor

Chapter 05 Exam Question 19

Maintaining ___________ is a general term referring to equilibrium in a dynamic system.

a. Adrenocortical response
b. Reciprocity
c. Homeostasis
d. Homeastasis

Chapter 05 Exam Question 18

"HPA" stands for:

a. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical
b. hypothalamic-parasympathetic-aorta
c. hypothetic-parasympathetic-adrenocortical
d. hypothetic-pituitary-aorta

Chapter 05 Exam Question 17

ACTH induces the ________ gland to produce cortisol.

a. adrenal
b. pituitary
c. thyroid
d. pineal

Chapter 05 Exam Question 16

The __________ gland secretes a hormone called adrenocorticotrophic hormone.

a. cortico
b. pituitary
c. thyroid
d. pineal

Chapter 05 Exam Question 15

The _________ regulates the autonomic nervous system.

a. adrenal cortex
b. cerebellum
c. adrenal medulla
d. hypothalamus

Chapter 05 Exam Question 14

After hearing odd scratching and growling sounds in the dark alley by which she had to walk, Julie's blood pressure increased and her heartbeat quickened. Once she quickly realized it was just a cat, her heartbeat and blood pressure went back to normal. These normalizing/calming physical reactions were most directly regulated by her _____________________.

a. parasympathetic nervous system
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. sensorimotor nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 13

This is the division of the autonomic nervous system which functions to conserve and restore, rather than expend energy.

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 12

The stress hormone _____ prepares the organism for emergency responding, in part by temporarily inhibiting the immune system's response to injury.

a. cortisol
b. epinephrine
c. esteridol
d. norepinephrine

Chapter 05 Exam Question 11

The adrenal medulla gland is stimulated to secrete _____________ and _______________.

a. cortisol, serotonin
b. epinephrine; norepinephrine
c. esteridol, progesterone
d. norepinephrine, dopamine

Chapter 05 Exam Question 10

If you hear strange noises in the middle of the night, and believe there is a burglar in your home, this is the division of the autonomic nervous system which would activate the ____________.

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 9

This portion of the nervous system controls the functioning of many internal bodily processes such as heart rate, digestive processes, and so on.

a. autonomic nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. skeletal nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 8

One of the body's physiological systems that is involved in almost all emotional responses is the _______________.

a. somatic nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. autonomic nervous system
d. skeletal nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 7

The term stressors refers to the challenges and demands on an organism, and the effects on the organism which these challenges produce are referred to as _____.

a. stressors
b. distress
c. eustress
d. the stress response

Chapter 05 Exam Question 6

Positive stress is also referred to as _____, while negative stress is referred to as _________.

a. eustress, distress
b. prostress, eustress
c. distress, eustress
d. autostress, distress

Chapter 05 Exam Question 5

During this stage of the GAS, coping resources are depleted.

a. alarm
b. resistance
c. exhaustion
d. transition

Chapter 05 Exam Question 4

During this stage of the GAS, coping responses to the ongoing challenge are activated.

a. alarm
b. resistance
c. exhaustion
d. transition

Chapter 05 Exam Question 3

During this stage of the GAS, physical resources are mobilized following the recognition of the stress event.

a. alarm
b. resistance
c. exhaustion
d. transition

Chapter 05 Exam Question 2

The correct order of stages in Selye's model are ______________.

a. alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
b. transition, resistance, and exhaustion
c. resistance, alarm, and exhaustion
d. exhaustion, resistance, and alarm

Chapter 05 Exam Question 1

In 1936, Hans Selye developed a model of stress known as:

a. the Posttraumatic Stress Disorder syndrome
b. the general adaptation syndrome
c. the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical pathway
d. life change unit value system