Chapter 07 - TERMS

What is Malingering?
The intentional faking of an abnormal behavior symptom.

What is Psychogenic?
Originating from psychological factors.

What is Conversion?
The notion that psychic energy or stress may be converted into physical symptoms.

What is Aphonia?
Inability to make speech sounds, without apparent physical basis.

What is Selective Amnesia?
Loss of memory for some but not all events during a particular period of time.

What is Iatrogenic?
Induced inadvertently by a therapist or by a treatment.

Chapter 07 Exam Question 49

While Jack did not lose contact with reality, he did feel a recurrent feeling of detachment or separation from his body, sort of like watching himself in a movie. This is known as ___________________.

a. Depersonalization Disorder
b. Dissociative Amnesia
c. Factitious Disorder
d. Hypochondriasis

Chapter 07 Exam Question 48

There are similarities between Dissociative Identity Disorder and _____________.

a. Bipolar disorder
b. GAD
c. depression
d. PTSD

Chapter 07 Exam Question 47

There has been a sharp rise in incidence of Dissociative Identity Disorder over the past few decades, increasing from a few hundred cases worldwide to ___________ in North America alone.

a. over 20,000
b. over 30,000
c. well over 80,000
d. over 100,000

Chapter 07 Exam Question 46

Dissociative Identity Disorder is formerly known as ________________.

a. Bipolar Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Multiple Personality Disorder
d. Manic-Depressive Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 45

The prevalence for Dissociative Fugue is ________ percent of the population.

a. 0.2
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 1.4

Chapter 07 Exam Question 44

Brett came home from work early and caught his wife and best friend in bed together. He left the home without saying a word. He disappeared and was later found 2 states away working as a janitor with no memory of being Brett. Which DSM-IV-TR disorder best characterizes his behavior?

a. Multiple Personality
b. Antisocial Personality
c. Schizophrenia
d. Dissociative Fugue

Chapter 07 Exam Question 43

Walter suffered from both memory impairment and sudden travel away from his home or regular surroundings. This is known as ___________.

a. Dissociative Identity Disorder
b. Dissociative Fugue
c. Dissociative Amnesia
d. Dissociative Dementia

Chapter 07 Exam Question 42

Empirical evidence shows that trauma, in general, ___________, which is a major issue in regards to the validity of the concept of repressed memory.

a. has no effect on memory
b. contributes to memory loss
c. impairs memory
d. enhances memory

Chapter 07 Exam Question 41

As patients with dissociative disorders are quite suggestible, the memories "recovered" during therapy may be ______, or induced inadvertently by a therapist or by a treatment.

a. socioceptive
b. interoceptive
c. iatrogenic
d. psychogenic

Chapter 07 Exam Question 40

For years, the typical approaches to treating Dissociative Amnesia involved hypnosis or the drug ____________.

a. sodium pentothal
b. sodium amytal
c. sodium butyl
d. sodium hydrate

Chapter 07 Exam Question 39

After seeing his best friend shot and killed, Tom suffered a loss of memory for some but not all events during that particular period of time. This is known as _____________.

a. Dementia
b. Pseudocyesis
c. Selective amnesia
d. Cognitive restructuring

Chapter 07 Exam Question 38

It is not uncommon for mentally ill patients, especially those with psychotic presentations to claim false symptoms of pregnancy known as ____________.

a. abasia
b. paruresis
c. pseudocyesis
d. aphonia

Chapter 07 Exam Question 37

These medications work better than other pharmacological interventions for Body Dysmorphic Disorder, especially at higher doses and longer intervals of treatment.

a. Lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. SNRIs
d. Anti-anxiety medications

Chapter 07 Exam Question 36

Body Dysmorphic Disorder begins by ____________.

a. late childhood
b. adolescence
c. young adulthood
d. middle age

Chapter 07 Exam Question 35

The prevalence of Body Dysmorphic Disorder may be up to ___ percent of patients in dermatological settings.

a. 6
b. 10
c. 15
d. 17

Chapter 07 Exam Question 34

The point prevalence of Body Dysmorphic Disorder was estimated at ___ percent of the adult population.

a. 1.4
b. 2.4
c. 3.4
d. 4.4

Chapter 07 Exam Question 33

Ann is preoccupied with the small hairs above her lip as well as the size of her nose. Despite numerous electrolysis appointments and corrective surgeries for her nose, she still believes there are defects in her appearance. She continues to spend hours a day looking at her face. Ann would be diagnosed with ____________________.

a. Dissociative Fugue
b. Dissociative Identity Disorder
c. Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 32

Which pharmacological class has produced positive results in the treatment for Hypochondriasis?

a. Lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. SNRIs
d. Anti-anxiety medications

Chapter 07 Exam Question 31

Hypochondriasis can co-occur with several ______ conditions.

a. Axis V
b. Axis IV
c. Axis III
d. Axis I

Chapter 07 Exam Question 30

Hypochondriasis begins at ___________.

a. age 12
b. age 18
c. age 24
d. at any age

Chapter 07 Exam Question 29

Hypochondriasis appears to affect between ______________ of the population.

a. 1 and 5 percent
b. 2 and 5 percent
c. 3 and 5 percent
d. 4 and 5 percent

Chapter 07 Exam Question 28

The disease concerns associated with Hypochondriasis must have lasted ___ months.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

Chapter 07 Exam Question 27

Kevin is overly preoccupied with the fear that he has cancer, based on his recent weight loss of 2 pounds and muscle aches. Kevin may have ___________.

a. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
b. Conversion Disorder
c. Hypochondriasis
d. Somatization Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 26

_________ changes one's perspective on chronic pain by focusing not on pain control but on accepting its presence and valuing pain tolerance.

a. Acceptance and Commitment therapy
b. Aversive therapy
c. Pain-medication therapy
d. Cognitive-behavior therapy

Chapter 07 Exam Question 25

These antidepressant medications have produced pain relief in somatoform patients.

a. the MAO-inhibitors
b. the new-generation antidepressants the tricyclics
c. the SSRIs
d. the tricyclics

Chapter 07 Exam Question 24

Psychological factors associated with Pain disorder can include other

a. Axis I or II disorders.
b. Axis II or III disorders.
c. Axis II or IV disorders.
d. Axis III or IV disorders.

Chapter 07 Exam Question 23

Chronic pain is associated with ________________.

a. the refusal of sufferers to seek medical attention
b. depression and a risk of suicide
c. anxiety and a risk of suicide
d. schizophrenia and a risk of suicide

Chapter 07 Exam Question 22

Pain Disorder can be typed as __________ or ___________.

a. symptomatic, asymptomatic
b. chronic, exaggerated
c. mild, severe
d. acute, chronic

Chapter 07 Exam Question 21

Nathan has one or more pains severe enough to warrant clinical attention, which cause him distress, and interfere with his normal social, occupational, or daily functioning. He is suffering from _________________.

a. Hypochondriasis
b. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
c. Pain Disorder
d. Conversion

Chapter 07 Exam Question 20

In an investigation of the treatment of Conversion Disorder, a randomized clinical trial of hypnosis compared to waiting list controls indicated that patients in the hypnosis condition showed significant improvement in conversion symptoms that was maintained at a ___________-month follow-up.

a. three
b. four
c. six
d. eight

Chapter 07 Exam Question 19

David's conversion symptoms came about the time when he was supposed to redeploy to the front lines. His symptoms seem to produce a _______________.

a. medical illness
b. subsequent opiate dependence
c. secondary gain
d. state of la belle indifference

Chapter 07 Exam Question 18

John is experiencing a lack of feeling or numbness in an area of his hand and wrist. This is known as _____________.

a. Aphonia
b. Abasia
c. Paresthesia
d. Glove anesthesia

Chapter 07 Exam Question 17

Theresa presents with coughing spells, sneezing, tics around her mouth, and tingling on her skin. Her symptoms cannot be explained by a general medical condition, any substances, or any religious or cultural practices. She would be diagnosed with

a. Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder
b. Somatization Disorder
c. Pain Disorder
d. Conversion Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 16

Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder must be at least ____ months in duration.

a. two
b. four
c. six
d. nine

Chapter 07 Exam Question 15

The effectiveness of _____________________ Somatization Disorder is less well documented than for some of the other somatoform disorders.

a. SSRIs
b. Cognitive-Behavior Therapies
c. Psychodynamic Therapies
d. hypnosis

Chapter 07 Exam Question 14

In a recent group comparison, sexual abuse was _____ times more likely in the background of Somatization Disorder patients than in matched patients with Major Depressive Disorder.

a. six
b. nine
c. ten
d. twelve

Chapter 07 Exam Question 13

Familial evidence suggests that male relatives of those with Somatization Disorder are more likely to be diagnosed with

a. Histrionic Personality Disorder
b. Antisocial Personality Disorder
c. Borderline Personality Disorder
d. Dependent Personality Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 12

The DSM-IV-TR suggests the incidence of Somatization Disorder is up to _____ of females and about one-tenth of that for males.

a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 6%

Chapter 07 Exam Question 11

The chronic symptoms of Somatization Disorder must have begun by age ____ and have lasted several years.

a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

Chapter 07 Exam Question 10

Susan presents with multiple physical complaints across several different bodily symptoms, which have resulted in repeated medical treatments but for which no medical explanation is available. Susan would be diagnosed as having _____________.

a. Somatization Disorder
b. Depersonalization Disorder
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
d. Dissociative Identity Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 9

Nikki complains of physical problems, including nausea, headaches, and a tingling sensation in her fingertips. She has had bouts of extreme fatigue and tenderness in her legs. Although she has been to a number of physicians, no physical abnormality can be found. Nikki is most likely to be categorized as having a(n) ________ disorder.

a. somatoform
b. dissociative
c. affective
d. anxiety

Chapter 07 Exam Question 8

Most often, the victim of Factitious Disorder by Proxy is a preschool child and the perpetrator is _____.

a. the brother
b. the sister
c. the mother
d. the father

Chapter 07 Exam Question 7

____________________ involves false symptoms produced on behalf of someone else who is under the individual's care.

a. Dissociative Identity Disorder
b. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
c. Pain Disorder, Undifferentiated
d. Factitious Disorder by Proxy

Chapter 07 Exam Question 6

The prevalence estimate of ___ percent among hospitalized patients is not very useful because feigning is probably not detected with great accuracy.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Chapter 07 Exam Question 5

The symptoms of Factitious Disorder ___________ when an individual is aware of being observed.

a. lessen
b. are moderate
c. are mild
d. worsen

Chapter 07 Exam Question 4

Laura has a tendency to invent or exaggerate her symptoms for no obvious motive or reason, apart from playing sick. She would be diagnosed with _____________.

a. Conversion Disorder
b. Factitious Disorder
c. Dissociative Identity Disorder
d. Pain Disorder

Chapter 07 Exam Question 3

Malingering may be over-represented among certain conditions such as _______.

a. GAD
b. Schizophrenia
c. Bipolar Disorder
d. PTSD

Chapter 07 Exam Question 2

Malingering not attributed to a mental disorder and is classified in the DSM-IV-TR as ______.

a. a Factitious Disorder
b. an Iatrogenic Disorder
c. a "V-code"
d. a "G-code"

Chapter 07 Exam Question 1

Luke was facing 20 years to life for his latest armed robbery. Although he never suffered from a psychiatric disorder in his life, he told the psychiatrist that he was hearing voices which told him to rob other people. This would best be described as ____________.

a. a conversion disorder
b. an affective disorder
c. malingering
d. iatrogenic disorder

Chapter 06 - TERMS

What is Panic Attack?
Rapidly developing sense of intense fear and anxiety.

What is Agoraphobia?
Anxiety about being in places from which escape would be difficult in the event of a panic attack.

What is Interoceptive?
Relating to internal, physiological stimuli.

What is Exteroceptive?
Relating to external, environmental stimuli.

What is Two-Factor Theory?
Theory that both Pavlovian and operant influences maintain phobic behavior.

What is Obsessions?
Intrusive thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

What is Compulsions?
Actions that one feels compelled to perform.

Chapter 06 Exam Question 50

In terms of the Anxiety Disorders, this may be a more effective treatment and carry a lower rate of relapse after the end of therapy.

a. medications
b. cognitive-behavioral interventions
c. psychodynamic therapies
d. humanistic treatments

Chapter 06 Exam Question 49

For Generalized Anxiety Disorder, medications such as _____ are effective for longer term treatment.

a. lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Phenothiazines

Chapter 06 Exam Question 48

For Generalized Anxiety Disorder, medications such as _____ are helpful for the short-term relief of symptoms.

a. lithium salts
b. SSRIs
c. Benzodiazepines
d. SNRIs

Chapter 06 Exam Question 47

People with Generalized Anxiety Disorder do not experience ____________.

a. panic attacks
b. worries which are difficult to control
c. symptoms of autonomic arousal concentration
d. generally worry about minor events as often as major ones

Chapter 06 Exam Question 46

People with _______ find their worries difficult to control, distressing, and physically troublesome.

a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. phobias
d. panic attacks

Chapter 06 Exam Question 45

This is the most common medical treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

a. antidepressant medications
b. anti-anxiety medications
c. mood stabilizers
d. antipsychotic medications

Chapter 06 Exam Question 44

Some brain studies utilizing PET scans have reported higher levels of activity in the _______ of the left hemisphere for those with OCD as compared to those without OCD.

a. occipital cortex
b. orbital parietal
c. cortex temporal
d. orbital frontal cortex

Chapter 06 Exam Question 43

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder usually follows a(n) _____ course with symptoms _____ during periods of stress.

a. acute, worsening
b. acute, maintaining the same degree
c. chronic; worsening
d. chronic; maintaining the same degree

Chapter 06 - TERMS

What is Panic Attack?
Rapidly developing sense of intense fear and anxiety.

What is Agoraphobia?
Anxiety about being in places from which escape would be difficult in the event of a panic attack.

What is Interoceptive?
Relating to internal, physiological stimuli.

What is Exteroceptive?
Relating to external, environmental stimuli.

What is Two-Factor Theory?
Theory that both Pavlovian and operant influences maintain phobic behavior.

What is Obsessions?
Intrusive thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

What is Compulsions?
Actions that one feels compelled to perform.

Chapter 06 Exam Question 42

The lifetime prevalence of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is about _____ of the population.

a. 1%
b. 2.50%
c. 7%
d. 10.50%

Chapter 06 Exam Question 41

For a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, the obsessions and compulsions are time-consuming, occupying at least ___________.

a. ten minutes per day
b. one hour per day
c. two hours per day
d. four hours per day

Chapter 06 Exam Question 40

This is the least common type of obsessions seen in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

a. ritualized counting
b. contamination
c. forbidden urges
d. repeated doubts

Chapter 06 Exam Question 39

When driving, Yolanda often has the disturbing thought that she has run over something. When the thought occurs, she responds by driving up and down the same road 5-10 times to make sure she did not hit something. The repetitive thought is a(n) ______ and the corresponding action is a(n) ______.

a. phobia; compulsion
b. compulsion; obsession
c. panic attack; obsession
d. obsession; compulsion

Chapter 06 Exam Question 38

Grace checks her appearance in the mirror over 40 times a day to make sure no hairs are out of place, her make-up is flawless, and her earrings have not moved. She brushes her hair for exactly ten minutes on each side and has to count while brushing. If she loses count, she must start all over again. Grace probably suffers from a(n) _______ Disorder.

a. Social Phobia
b. Conversion
c. Obsessive-compulsive
d. Personality

Chapter 06 Exam Question 37

_________ are actions that one feels compelled to perform and are difficult to stop or control while ______ are intrusive unwanted thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

a. Delusions, obsessions
b. Compulsions, obsessions
c. Obsessions, compulsions
d. Panic attacks, compulsions

Chapter 06 Exam Question 36

_________ are actions that one feels compelled to perform and are difficult to stop or control while ______ are intrusive unwanted thoughts that are difficult to stop or control.

a. Delusions, obsessions
b. Compulsions, obsessions
c. Obsessions, compulsions
d. Panic attacks, compulsions

Chapter 06 Exam Question 35

Pharmacologically, __________ appear to be effective in short-term relief for social anxiety.

a. Antidepressants
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazines
d. Beta blockers

Chapter 06 Exam Question 34

Mike has difficulty going to parties and thus meeting new people. He fears appearing stupid and incompetent, and that others will judge him as weak, timid, and not fun to be around. He often is overwhelmed with anxiety for days or week whenever he is invited to a party or social event, and he experienced a panic attack when he tried to leave for the last party he was invited to. Mike most likely meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for

a. Social Phobia
b. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia
c. Specific Phobia
d. Acute Stress Disorder

Chapter 06 Exam Question 33

Developed by Wolpe, this primary (and the most effective) therapy is used to treat Specific Phobias.

a. rational-emotive therapy
b. systematic desensitization
c. psychoanalysis
d. biomedical therapy

Chapter 06 Exam Question 32

This arguably remains the most validated and plausible account of the etiology of phobias at this time.

a. the cognitive-social model
b. the comprehensive contemporary learning model
c. the pharmacological model
d. the psychodynamic model

Chapter 06 Exam Question 31

In two-factor theory, the acquisition of specific phobias occurs through Pavlovian conditioning and the maintenance of the phobic behavior occurs through _______________.

a. cognitive factors
b. catastrophic misinterpretations
c. sympathetic nervous system activity
d. operant conditioning

Chapter 06 Exam Question 30

Fear of strangers is known as

a. monophobia
b. acrophobia
c. xenophobia
d. zoophobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 29

Fear of high places is known as

a. astraphobia
b. acrophobia
c. cynophobia
d. zoophobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 28

Women are diagnosed with phobias _________ men.

a. twice as often as
b. three times more often as
c. less than
d. as equally as

Chapter 06 Exam Question 27

This is the most reliable diagnosis in the anxiety disorder category.

a. Specific Phobia
b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
c. Panic Disorder
d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Chapter 06 Exam Question 26

Sharon's intense, irrational fear of ladders would most likely be an example of a(n):

a. obsession
b. phobia
c. fugue
d. compulsion

Chapter 06 Exam Question 25

______________ therapies for Panic Disorder appear to be more effective and less subject to relapse.

a. Pharmacological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Psychodynamic
d. Cognitive-behavioral

Chapter 06 Exam Question 24

These therapies for Panic Disorder typically involve exposure to feared interoceptive or exteroceptive stimuli with the goal of extinction of the anxiety response and the catastrophic expectations that accompany it.

a. Cognitive-behavioral and humanistic
b. Humanistic and psychodynamic
c. Behavioral and cognitive-behavioral
d. Psychodynamic and behavioral

Chapter 06 Exam Question 23

As treatment for Panic Disorder, ____________ may produce dependence and most patients experience a relapse when medications are discontinued.

a. Antidepressants
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazines
d. Beta blockers

Chapter 06 Exam Question 22

Benzodiazepines are ________ enhancers and reduce anxiety and panic symptoms.

a. GABA
b. serotonin
c. ACTH
d. dopamine

Chapter 06 Exam Question 21

From the biological perspective, treatments for panic disorder have included minor tranquilizers such as:

a. Barbiturates
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazines
d. Beta blockers

Chapter 06 Exam Question 20

The term _______ is defined as relating to internal, physiological stimuli, while the term ________ is defined as relating to external, environmental stimuli.

a. interoceptive, exteroceptive
b. interoceptive, exteraceptive
c. exteroceptive, interoceptive
d. exteroceptive, interaceptive

Chapter 06 Exam Question 19

Another possible factor for Panic Disorder involves the inhibitory neurotransmitter __________.

a. GABA
b. serotonin
c. ACTH
d. dopamine

Chapter 06 Exam Question 18

Panic attacks involve intense activity in parts of the brain involved in fear and emotional arousal such as the _______________.

a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus

Chapter 06 Exam Question 17

First degree relatives of Panic Disorder victims are up to ___ times more likely to also show the disorder.

a. 5
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14

Chapter 06 Exam Question 16

Panic disorder affects up to ___of the population at some point in life.

a. 35%
b. 20%
c. 15%
d. 5%

Chapter 06 Exam Question 15

The most common pattern of attacks appears to be a(n) _______ one of waxing and waning.

a. moderate
b. acute
c. chronic
d. severe

Chapter 06 Exam Question 14

Gina experienced a panic attack while shopping at a crowded mall. She could not return to the mall as she feared experiencing another panic attack. She then experienced great anxiety at the grocery store as well, so she stopped going to the store and began to buy her groceries online. Gina's fear has grown to encompass anything outside of the home such as getting into her car or going outside to get the newspaper. She spends more and more time in the safety of her own home and has recently accepted a work from home position. Gina most likely meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for

a. Specific Phobia
b. Acute Stress Disorder
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
d. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 13

As part of the criteria for panic disorder, at least one of the panic attacks has been followed by _________ or more of one or more of the following: persistent concern about having additional attacks, worry about the implications of the attack or its consequences, and a significant change in behavior related to the attacks.

a. one month
b. two months
c. three months
d. four months

Chapter 06 Exam Question 12

Kate has experienced recurrent, spontaneous and unexpected panic attacks. She has anxiety about future attacks and their consequences. Kate is suffering from ________________.

a. Specific phobia
b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. Generalized anxiety
d. Panic disorder

Chapter 06 Exam Question 11

In the case of some subtypes of anxiety, the female to male ratio is ____________.

a. 2 to 1
b. 3 to 1
c. 4 to 1
d. 5 to 1

Chapter 06 Exam Question 10

As in the case of all ________ conditions, the Anxiety Disorders cause interference with or impairment of normal functioning.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 06 Exam Question 9

This disorder may occur with or without agoraphobia.

a. Panic
b. Bipolar
c. Posttraumatic stress
d. OCD

Chapter 06 Exam Question 8

This disorder gets its name from the Greek for fear of the marketplace.

a. Social phobia
b. Agoraphobia
c. Posttraumatic stress
d. Specific phobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 7

This is anxiety about being in places from which escape would be difficult in the event of a panic attack.

a. Social phobia
b. Agoraphobia
c. Posttraumatic stress
d. Specific phobia

Chapter 06 Exam Question 6

Diana suddenly and rapidly experiences a pounding heart, feelings of choking and suffocation, trembling, and a fear of losing control. She thinks that she is dying. These sensations peak in about ten minutes and leave Diana feeling as if she has had a nervous breakdown. Diana most likely has experienced __________________.

a. an obsessive-compulsive episode
b. a specific phobia
c. a generalized anxiety disorder
d. a panic attack

Chapter 06 Exam Question 5

A(n) panic attack is a rapidly developing sense of intense fear and anxiety which progresses to a peak within ____ minutes of its onset.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

Chapter 06 Exam Question 4

__________ is a chronic sensation without being clearly associated with any specific stimulus.

a. Fear
b. Anxiety
c. Specific phobia
d. Astonishment

Chapter 06 Exam Question 3

The activation of the _______ results in abrupt dilation of the blood vessels in the viscera, slowing of the heartbeat, a drop in blood pressure, and loss of muscle tone.

a. central nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. skeletal nervous system

Chapter 06 Exam Question 2

A variation that may occur in acute fear is ______________.

a. vomiting
b. fainting
c. choking
d. irritability

Chapter 06 Exam Question 1

The lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders affect over ______ of the population at some point in their lives.

a. 3%
b. 11%
c. 28%
d. 46%

Chapter 05 - TERMS

What is Autonomic Nervous System?
Portion of the nervous system that controls the functioning of many internal bodily processes such as heart rate, digestive processes, and so on.

What is Sympathetic Nervous System?
Division of the autonomic nervous system primarily involved in stress or emergency reactions. For example, produces an increase in heart rate and blood pressure.

What is Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Division of the autonomic nervous system primarily involved in conservation of energy, such as increasing digestive processes.

What is Homeostatic Mechanisms?
Processes whereby equilibrium or balance is maintained in a dynamic system.

What is Psychoneuroimmunology?
The study of the neural effects of psychological events on the immune system.

What is Diathesis-stress Model?
A model of mental disorders that proposes disorders develop when an individual with a diathesis (predisposition) experiences significant psycho logical stress.

What is Flooding?
Therapeutic technique in which the person is made to confront the stimuli that arouse anxiety until the anxiety extinguishes.

What is Habituation?
Lessening of a response as a function of repeated presentations of the eliciting stimulus.

Chapter 05 Exam Question 48

EMDR stands for:

a. eye movement desensitization and reprocessing
b. eye movement desensitization and processing
c. eye movement sensitization and processing
d. eye movement sensitization and reprocessing

Chapter 05 Exam Question 47

The most effective treatments for PTSD are:

a. psychoanalytical in nature
b. cognitive-behavioral therapies
c. humanistic therapies
d. social-debriefings

Chapter 05 Exam Question 46

The diagnosis of PTSD in women to men is _______.

a. 5 to 1
b. 4 to 1
c. 3 to 1
d. 2 to 1

Chapter 05 Exam Question 45

PTSD has perhaps ____ percent lifetime prevalence among adults in the United States.

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9

Chapter 05 Exam Question 44

PTSD was first listed as a mental disorder in the DSM-III in

a. 1980
b. 1987
c. 1994
d. 1996

Chapter 05 Exam Question 43

The diagnosis of _______ requires that symptoms begin within 4 weeks of the trauma.

a. PTSD
b. GAD
c. OCD
d. ASD

Chapter 05 Exam Question 42

Post-traumatic stress disorder is diagnosed after _______ in duration.

a. one month
b. two months
c. three months
d. four months

Chapter 05 Exam Question 41

The stressors that lead to _____ are so intense that they could presumably cause maladaptive reactions in anyone.

a. PTSD
b. GAD
c. OCD
d. SAD

Chapter 05 Exam Question 40

By definition, an Adjustment Disorder is time-limited, such that the impairment or maladaptive reaction to the stressor is expected to remit within _____ months if the stressor is removed.

a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six

Chapter 05 Exam Question 39

Unlike bereavement, Adjustment Disorder is a(n) _____ disorder according to the DSM-IV-TR.

a. Axis IV
b. Axis III
c. Axis II
d. Axis I

Chapter 05 Exam Question 38

For the DSM-IV-TR, bereavement is listed as ______________.

a. an Axis I disorder
b. an Axis III disorder
c. an Axis V disorder
d. a V code, not a disorder

Chapter 05 Exam Question 37

This code is used when condition for which one might seek treatment but is not attributable to mental disorder.

a. A-Code
b. C-Code
c. P-Code
d. V-Code

Chapter 05 Exam Question 36

In the ______________ of mental disorders, the predisposition for a particular disorder is considered to be biological, genetic, or psychological in origin.

a. Cognitive model
b. Diathesis-dynamic model
c. Diathesis-stress model
d. Diathesis-eustress model

Chapter 05 Exam Question 35

This is the model of mental disorders that proposes disorders develop when an individual with a predisposition for a disorder experiences significant psychological stress.

a. Diathesis-austress model
b. Diathesis-distress model
c. Diathesis-stress model
d. Diathesis-eustress model

Chapter 05 Exam Question 34

This is the study of neural effects of psychological events on the immune system.

a. Psychoimmunology
b. Psychoneuroimmunology
c. SocialPsychoimmunology
d. Neuroimmunology

Chapter 05 Exam Question 33

Martin went to his favorite restaurant and ordered a steak with bÈarnaise sauce. A few hours later, he became violently ill with food poisoning. To this day, he refuses to have bÈarnaise sauce on his steak. He apparently developed ___________________.

a. an immune system suppression
b. a conditioned taste aversion
c. ognitive restructuring
d. a food adjustment disorder

Chapter 05 Exam Question 32

One effect of the stress hormone _________ is to suppress immune response.

a. norepinephrine
b. cortisol
c. serotonin
d. insulin

Chapter 05 Exam Question 31

Individuals who are easy-going, laid-back, less hurried, and relaxed individuals are referred to as ____________ personalities.

a. Type A personality
b. Type B personality
c. Type C personality
d. Type D personality

Chapter 05 Exam Question 30

Research suggests that one's susceptibility to heart attacks may be most closely linked to ______________.

a. ambition
b. competitiveness
c. hostility
d. perfectionism

Chapter 05 Exam Question 29

______________ is a pattern of behaving that involves competitiveness, aggressiveness, hostility, and time urgency.

a. Type A personality
b. Type B personality
c. Type C personality
d. Type D personality

Chapter 05 Exam Question 28

Exposure to uncontrollable or inescapable stressors can impair future learning, an effect that led ___________ (1975) to propose that uncontrollable events are the basis for depressive disorders.

a. Beck
b. Freud
c. Seligman
d. Foa

Chapter 05 Exam Question 27

Uncontrollable shock produces larger effects on fear, _______________ levels, and ulceration than does shock of equal intensity and frequency.

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. testosterone
d. corticosterone

Chapter 05 Exam Question 26

In the triadic research design, the __________ subjects receive exactly the same intensity, frequency, and duration of the stressor as other subjects, but do not have any prior warning.

a. yoked
b. provoked
c. evoked
d. stoked

Chapter 05 Exam Question 25

In ____________, the experimental or master subjects receive some warning signal or information predicting the delivery of the stressor.

a. the diagnostic interview
b. the diathesis-stress model
c. the triadic design
d. classical conditioning

Chapter 05 Exam Question 24

This research method assesses the relative importance of the predictability of stressors.

a. the diagnostic interview
b. the diathesis-stress model
c. the triadic design
d. classical conditioning

Chapter 05 Exam Question 23

On Holmes and Rahe's scale, a total score of 300 predicted a greater than ___________ likelihood of major illness within the next two years.

a. three-fourths
b. two-thirds
c. one-half
d. one-third

Chapter 05 Exam Question 22

According to Holmes and Rahe, the death of a spouse was assigned a value of _____ units.

a. 100
b. 99
c. 95
d. 90

Chapter 05 Exam Question 21

Increased levels of cortisol made in response to chronic challenges, may damage cells in the ___________ and impair its ability to control the stress response.

a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus

Chapter 05 Exam Question 20

The initial amplifying effects of reciprocal inhibition are eventually reversed by _________________.

a. ACTH
b. the pituitary gland
c. homeostatic controls
d. the experience of a stressor

Chapter 05 Exam Question 19

Maintaining ___________ is a general term referring to equilibrium in a dynamic system.

a. Adrenocortical response
b. Reciprocity
c. Homeostasis
d. Homeastasis

Chapter 05 Exam Question 18

"HPA" stands for:

a. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical
b. hypothalamic-parasympathetic-aorta
c. hypothetic-parasympathetic-adrenocortical
d. hypothetic-pituitary-aorta

Chapter 05 Exam Question 17

ACTH induces the ________ gland to produce cortisol.

a. adrenal
b. pituitary
c. thyroid
d. pineal

Chapter 05 Exam Question 16

The __________ gland secretes a hormone called adrenocorticotrophic hormone.

a. cortico
b. pituitary
c. thyroid
d. pineal

Chapter 05 Exam Question 15

The _________ regulates the autonomic nervous system.

a. adrenal cortex
b. cerebellum
c. adrenal medulla
d. hypothalamus

Chapter 05 Exam Question 14

After hearing odd scratching and growling sounds in the dark alley by which she had to walk, Julie's blood pressure increased and her heartbeat quickened. Once she quickly realized it was just a cat, her heartbeat and blood pressure went back to normal. These normalizing/calming physical reactions were most directly regulated by her _____________________.

a. parasympathetic nervous system
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. sensorimotor nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 13

This is the division of the autonomic nervous system which functions to conserve and restore, rather than expend energy.

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 12

The stress hormone _____ prepares the organism for emergency responding, in part by temporarily inhibiting the immune system's response to injury.

a. cortisol
b. epinephrine
c. esteridol
d. norepinephrine

Chapter 05 Exam Question 11

The adrenal medulla gland is stimulated to secrete _____________ and _______________.

a. cortisol, serotonin
b. epinephrine; norepinephrine
c. esteridol, progesterone
d. norepinephrine, dopamine

Chapter 05 Exam Question 10

If you hear strange noises in the middle of the night, and believe there is a burglar in your home, this is the division of the autonomic nervous system which would activate the ____________.

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 9

This portion of the nervous system controls the functioning of many internal bodily processes such as heart rate, digestive processes, and so on.

a. autonomic nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. skeletal nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 8

One of the body's physiological systems that is involved in almost all emotional responses is the _______________.

a. somatic nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. autonomic nervous system
d. skeletal nervous system

Chapter 05 Exam Question 7

The term stressors refers to the challenges and demands on an organism, and the effects on the organism which these challenges produce are referred to as _____.

a. stressors
b. distress
c. eustress
d. the stress response

Chapter 05 Exam Question 6

Positive stress is also referred to as _____, while negative stress is referred to as _________.

a. eustress, distress
b. prostress, eustress
c. distress, eustress
d. autostress, distress

Chapter 05 Exam Question 5

During this stage of the GAS, coping resources are depleted.

a. alarm
b. resistance
c. exhaustion
d. transition

Chapter 05 Exam Question 4

During this stage of the GAS, coping responses to the ongoing challenge are activated.

a. alarm
b. resistance
c. exhaustion
d. transition

Chapter 05 Exam Question 3

During this stage of the GAS, physical resources are mobilized following the recognition of the stress event.

a. alarm
b. resistance
c. exhaustion
d. transition

Chapter 05 Exam Question 2

The correct order of stages in Selye's model are ______________.

a. alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
b. transition, resistance, and exhaustion
c. resistance, alarm, and exhaustion
d. exhaustion, resistance, and alarm

Chapter 05 Exam Question 1

In 1936, Hans Selye developed a model of stress known as:

a. the Posttraumatic Stress Disorder syndrome
b. the general adaptation syndrome
c. the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical pathway
d. life change unit value system

Chapter 04 - TERMS

What is Electroencephalogram (EEG)?
A record of electrical activity of the brain in terms of brain frequencies, measured from the scalp.

What is Mental Status Examination?
Brief interview and observation method to provide an overview of a person's general level of psychological functioning.

What is Projective Tests?
Tests on which the person is presented with ambiguous stimulus materials and asked to respond in some way; based on assumption that persons project characteristics of their own intrapsychic processes into their responses.

What is Personality Inventories?
A self-report questionnaire in which brief responses to a collection of test items are used to assess personal characteristics or behaviors across various personality dimensions.

What is Computerized Axial Tomography (CT)?
Computer-guided X-ray technique to image 3-dimensional representations of the brain or other organ.

What is Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)?
Imagining technique using variations in magnetic fields to produce 3-dimensional images of the brain or other organs with better resolution than CT scans.

What is Positron Emission Tomography (PET)?
Imaging technique that measures metabolic activity (such as glucose utilization) as an indication of the functioning of the brain or other organ.

Chapter 04 Exam Question 50

This is a newer method of brain imaging that essentially allows the tracking of blood flow in the brain in real time is a(n) _____.

a. EEG
b. CAT
c. FMRI
d. MRI

Chapter 04 Exam Question 49

An imaging technique that measures glucose utilization as an indication of the functioning of the brain or other organ is a(n) ____.

a. MRI
b. PET scan
c. EEG
d. CAT scan

Chapter 04 Exam Question 48

The ______ makes images produced by the energy of vibrating hydrogen molecules in the brain via a strong magnetic field.

a. MRI
b. PET scan
c. EEG
d. CAT scan

Chapter 04 Exam Question 47

_______ scans involve taking a series of X rays of the brain, organized by computers as slices of layers that allow progressive scanning for tumors or other structural abnormalities.

a. EEG
b. MRI
c. CAT
d. PET

Chapter 04 Exam Question 46

This scale consists of a series of questions in which the examinee can select statements reflecting the severity of symptoms like sadness and hopelessness.

a. MMPI
b. Rorschach Test
c. Beck Depression Inventory
d. Hamilton Depression Scale

Chapter 04 Exam Question 45

The _________ was developed by clustering test items into subscales based on patterns of responses which corresponded with certain diagnoses.

a. MMPI
b. Rorschach Test
c. Draw-A-Person Test
d. Thematic Apperception Test

Chapter 04 Exam Question 44

The _________ on the MMPI-2 is a general measure of defensiveness.

a. L-scale
b. K-scale
c. F-scale
d. G-scale

Chapter 04 Exam Question 43

The _________ on the MMPI-2 is composed of a number of items that are mildly derogatory but probably true for most of us.

a. L-scale
b. K-scale
c. F-scale
d. G-scale

Chapter 04 Exam Question 42

The MMPI-2 was revised in ______.

a. 1979
b. 1989
c. 1999
d. 2009

Chapter 04 Exam Question 41

This is the most widely used personality inventory in the field of abnormal psychology.

a. MMPI-2
b. Rorschach Test
c. Draw-A-Person Test
d. Thematic Apperception Test

Chapter 04 Exam Question 40

Subjects are asked to make up stories about pictures of varying degrees of ambiguity on the ________________________.

a. MMPI-2
b. Rorschach Test
c. Halstead-Reitan Battery
d. Thematic Apperception Test

Chapter 04 Exam Question 39

One of the most well-known projective tests depicts inkblots and subjects are asked to describe what they look like. This is the _________________.

a. MMPI-2
b. Rorschach Test
c. Halstead-Reitan Battery
d. Thematic Apperception Test

Chapter 04 Exam Question 38

The Rorschach is an example of a ______________.

a. neurological battery
b. intelligence scale
c. projective test
d. personality inventory

Chapter 04 Exam Question 37

Personality tests tend to be of two basic types: projective tests and ______________.

a. social inventories
b. intelligence scales
c. neurological batteries
d. personality inventories

Chapter 04 Exam Question 36

The intelligence index scores are normalized with a mean score of ______ and a standard deviation of _____.

a. 130, 15
b. 120, 15
c. 110, 15
d. 100, 15

Chapter 04 Exam Question 35

Psychological tests have been useful in the assessment of both intelligence and _____________.

a. culture
b. personality
c. behavior
d. extrapsychic events

Chapter 04 Exam Question 34

These are highly standardized procedures for obtaining a sample of behavior, and have been normed through the use of representative samples.

a. Diagnostic interviews
b. Neuropsychological batteries
c. Observational procedures
d. Psychological tests

Chapter 04 Exam Question 33

The ______________ was created to collect the information necessary for DSM-III-R diagnoses.

a. SCID
b. SCAD
c. SCUD
d. SCED

Chapter 04 Exam Question 32

The process of diagnosing a mental disorder relies heavily on diagnostic interviews because the diagnostic criteria of the ___________ are based largely on a person's self-report of symptoms.

a. DSM-III
b. DSM-III-R
c. DSM-IV
d. DSM-IV-TR

Chapter 04 Exam Question 31

At present, there are no medical or biological tests that can confirm or verify the vast proportion of specific _________ diagnoses.

a. Axis I or Axis II
b. Axis I or Axis III
c. Axis II or Axis III
d. Axis II or Axis IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 30

For both the __________, the results of reliability field trials were not included.

a. DSM-II and DSM-III
b. DSM-III and DSM-III-R
c. DSM-III-R and DSM-IV
d. DSM-IV and DSM-IV-TR

Chapter 04 Exam Question 29

______________ considers the possibility of chance agreement in its calculation.

a. The kappa statistic
b. A field trial
c. The MMPI-2
d. A PET scan

Chapter 04 Exam Question 28

One major improvement that occurred in the _________ was the inclusion of field trials to evaluate diagnostic reliability.

a. DSM-II
b. DSM-III
c. DSM-III-R
d. DSM-IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 27

Diagnostic reliability is not itself adequate for any classification system, because it is possible for a diagnosis to be _________________.

a. valid but unreliable
b. reliable but invalid
c.     valid and reliable
d.     none of the above

Chapter 04 Exam Question 26

If Julian's functioning is assessed as some danger of hurting herself or others, then her code on Axis V of the DSM-IV-TR would be in the _____ range.

a. 1 to 10
b. 11 to 20
c. 21 to 30
d. 41 to 50

Chapter 04 Exam Question 25

_______ allows the diagnostician to assess a person's global level of functioning.

a. Axis II
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis V

Chapter 04 Exam Question 24

This is the only axis of the DSM-IV-TR that is dimensional in nature.

a. Axis II
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis V

Chapter 04 Exam Question 23

Gemma suffers from diabetes and major depressive disorder. She has recently been fired from her job of 6 six years, and her marriage is suffering - her husband has recently requested a formal separation. In terms of the axial coding of the DSM-IV-TR, Gemma's major depressive disorder would be listed on Axis _____.

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 22

Finn suffers from long-standing respiratory difficulties, which is relevant to his development of a substance abuse disorder. He has recently been fired from his job of 6 six years, and his marriage is suffering - his wife has recently requested a formal separation. In terms of the axial coding of the DSM-IV-TR, Finn's respiratory difficulties would be listed on Axis _____.

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 21

This axis of the DSM-IV-TR provides an opportunity to include an existing medical condition in the overall diagnostic picture if the condition is relevant to the disorders listed.

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 20

All of the following are Axis II disorders EXCEPT:

a. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder
b. Mental Retardation
c. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
d. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

Chapter 04 Exam Question 19

These disorders are characteristic of the long-standing functioning of the person, evident in some respects in nearly all situations and traceable back to adolescence or childhood.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 18

All of the following are Axis I disorders EXCEPT:

a. Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
b. Somatoform Disorders
c. Mental Retardation
d. Substance-Related Disorders

Chapter 04 Exam Question 17

Global assessment of functioning is listed on __________.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis V

Chapter 04 Exam Question 16

General medical conditions which are potentially relevant are listed on _____.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 15

Psychosocial and environmental problems are listed on ________.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 14

Clinical disorders and/or other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention are listed on _____.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 13

Personality disorders and mental retardation are listed on _________.

a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 12

There are ____ separate dimensions (or axes) on which individuals are evaluated, in order to provide a more complete clinical picture.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

Chapter 04 Exam Question 11

DSM-IV-TR stands for _______________________________.

a. Diagnostic and Specific Manual, 4th Edition, Text Revision
b. Diagnostic and Social Manual, 4th Edition, Text Revision
c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, 4th Edition, Text Revision
d. Definitive Statistical Manual, 4th Edition, Text Revision

Chapter 04 Exam Question 10

The DSM-III-R was published in _____.

a. 1952
b. 1968
c. 1987
d. 1994

Chapter 04 Exam Question 9

The largest structural change of _________ involved the introduction of five separate dimensions (or axes).

a. DSM-I
b. DSM-II
c. DSM-III
d. DSM-IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 8

For the _________, the criteria used to make a diagnosis were described in more behavioral terms and less tied to theoretical assumptions about intrapsychic causes.

a. DSM-I
b. DSM-II
c. DSM-III
d. DSM-IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 7

Based on a single verbal symptom, the confederates in Rosenhan's study were admitted to psychiatric hospitals, and remained hospitalized from ________ days before being discharged.

a. 5 to 52
b. 7 to 52
c. 15 to 52
d. 20 to 52

Chapter 04 Exam Question 6

Of the eight confederates who presented themselves to psychiatric hospitals with the complaint of hearing the words "empty," "hollow," and "thud," seven were admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of ___________.

a. schizoaffective disorder
b. depression
c. bipolar disorder
d. schizophrenia

Chapter 04 Exam Question 5

Homosexuality was listed as a mental disorder under the _________ but it was subsequently removed from the list by a vote of the members of the American Psychiatric Association.

a. DSM-I
b. DSM-II
c. DSM-III
d. DSM-IV

Chapter 04 Exam Question 4

When the DSM was revised in ________ into the DSM-II, the number of mental disorders listed was increased by 50 percent.

a. 1946
b. 1952
c. 1962
d. 1968

Chapter 04 Exam Question 3

The DSM-I, first published in ______, was strongly influenced by the theories of Freud and Mayer.

a. 1946
b. 1952
c. 1962
d. 1968

Chapter 04 Exam Question 2

The DSM is published by:

a. The American Psychoanalytic Association
b. The American Psychological Association
c. The American Psychiatric Association
d. The American Medical Association

Chapter 04 Exam Question 1

A pattern of symptoms that tends to occur together in a particular disease is known as _________.

a. a specified disorder
b. a syndrome
c. a diagnosis
d. an axial structure

Chapter 03 - TERMS

What is Oedipal conflict?
In Freudian theory, the erotic attachment to opposite sex parent, involving feelings of competition and hostility toward same-sex parent, and fears of retaliation (castration anxiety in boys) from the same-sex parent.

What is Unconscious?
In psychoanalytic theory, that part of the mind outside of conscious awareness, containing hidden instincts, impulses, and memories.

What is Defense Mechanisms?
In Freudian theory, strategies whereby a person avoids anxiety-arousing experiences.

What is Repression?
Defense mechanism in which the anxiety-arousing memory or impulse is prevented from becoming conscious.

What is Reaction Formation?
Defense mechanism in which a person behaves in a way directly opposite from some underlying impulse.

What is Isolation?
Defense mechanism in which person separates emotions from intellectual content, or otherwise separates experiences that would be anxiety arousing if permitted to occur together.

What is Displacement?
Defense mechanism in which the person shifts a reaction from some original target person or situation to some other person or situation (e.g., anger displaced from boss to family.)

What is Projection?
Defense mechanism in which the person disowns some impulse and attributes it to another person.

What is Intrapsychic?
Refers to unobservable mental events such as ideas, wishes, and unconscious conflicts.

What is Id?
In Freudian theory, that part of the mind from which instinctual impulses originate.

What is Ego?
In Freudian theory, that part of the mind that mediates between id impulses and external reality.

What is Superego?
In Freudian theory, the internalized representative of parental or cultural values.

What is Libido?
Psychoanalytic concept referring to the sexual instincts.

What is Fixations?
In Freudian theory, refers to an unusual investment of libidinal energy at a certain psychosexual stage.

What is Regressions?
In Freudian theory, refers to a return to some earlier stage of psychosexual development in the face of some current frustration.

What is Phobia?
Strong, irrational fear of some specific object, animal, or situation.

What is Free Association?
Basic procedure in psychoanalysis in which the patient is asked to say whatever comes to mind without censorship.

What is Resistance?
In psychoanalysis, the phenomenon in which patients unconsciously resist gaining insight into unconscious motives and conflicts.

What is Transference?
Irrational emotional reaction of a patient to the therapist (usually in psychoanalysis) in which early attitudes toward parents are 'transferred' to the therapist.

What is Behaviorism?
An approach to understanding behavior that emphasizes the relation between observable behavior and specifiable environmental events (or stimuli).

What is Reinforcement?
Consequence following a response that increases the likelihood that, in the same situation, the response will be repeated in the future.

What is Primary Reinforcers?
Events, usually biological in nature, that almost always provide reinforcement, such as eating when hungry; primary reinforcers do not acquire their reinforcing properties through learning.

What is Punishers?
Types of consequences that weaken or suppress the behaviors that produce them.

What is Positive Reinforcement?
The contingent presentation of a pleasant result, which strengthens subsequent responding.

What is Negative Reinforcement?
The contingent removal of an unpleasant stimulus, which strengthens subsequent responding.

What is Discriminative Stimulus?
A stimulus that serves as a signal that a certain response will lead to a reinforcement.

What is Reversal Design?
Experimental design in which new reinforcement contingencies are instated for a period of time, followed by reinstatement of the old reinforcement contingencies and finally the installment of the original, new contingencies; sometimes a fourth reversal is included. Purpose is to show that the new contingencies are causing any observed changes in behavior.

What is Modeling?
Teaching a behavior by performing the behavior and having the learner imitate it.

What is Systematic Desensitization?
A counterconditioning procedure in which subjects are exposed to gradually stronger anxiety-producing stimuli while maintaining a state of relaxation.

What is Covert Sensitization?
Form of behavior therapy in which the person is asked to imagine an upsetting scene in order to produce a form of aversion conditioning.

What is Chromosomes?
Elongated bodies in cells that carry genetic information; there are 23 pairs of chromosomes in human cells.

What is Genes?
Units of hereditary information carried in a chromosome by DNA.

What is Genotype?
Total set of inherited characteristics determined by a person's genetic makeup.

What is Phenotypes?
Observed characteristics that result from the interaction between genotype and environmental influences.

What is Identical or Monozygotic (MZ) twins?
Twins resulting from the splitting of a single fertilized ovum who have exactly the same genetic makeup.

What is Fraternal or Dizygotic (DZ) twins?
Twins that result from the simultaneous fertilization of two separate ova; such a pair has the same degree of genetic similarity as any two non-twin siblings born to the same parents.

What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Rare form of mental retardation caused by error in protein metabolism, recessively inherited.

What is Neurons?
Individual nerve cells.

What is Dendrites?
Branching fibers of a neuron that receive input from other neurons.

What is Axon?
Part of the neuron that carries neural impulses to other cells.

What is Synapse?
A tiny gap separating neurons, across which chemical communication between cells can occur.

What is Neurotransmitters?
Chemical substances released into the synapse that enable transmission of impulses from one neuron to another.

What is Electroconvulsive Therapy, or ECT?
Therapeutic induction of convulsive seizures by applying electrical current to the head; found to have some effectiveness with severe depressions.

What is Psychosurgery?
Procedures that attempt to treat abnormal behavior by surgical intervention on the brain.

What is Dopamine Hypothesis of Schizophrenia?
Proposed that the disorder was caused by excessive dopamine activity in the brain (hence, DA-blocking drugs like Thorazine were useful).

What is Catecholamine Hypothesis of Depression?
Proposed that the mood disorder resulted from a relative depletion of NE in the brain (hence, MAO-I drugs were useful because they enhanced NE activity).

What is Tardive Dyskinesia?
Occasional long term sideeffect of pheno thiazine treatment of schizophrenia. Involves rhythmical, stereotyped movements and lip smacking.

What is Humanistic Approach?
Emphasis on viewing people as whole human beings rather than analyzing them in an impersonal fashion.